MAH SET December 2013 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in December 2013. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. Open-book tests are recommended mainly because:
(A) They reduce malpractice in examinations
(B) Students need not spend time in studying for examination
(C) They reduce emphasis on rote memory
(D) Students are relaxed at the time of examination
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) They reduce emphasis on rote memory
Explanation: Open-book tests allow access to materials, so they reward understanding, application and reasoning rather than memorised recall. Their main rationale is therefore to reduce the emphasis on rote memory (C). They do not eliminate study (B) or principally aim at malpractice (A) or relaxation (D). Hence (C).
Q2. What is the best use of internet in teaching?
(A) For presenting content through audio-visual media
(B) For providing latest information
(C) For saving time and energy of a teacher
(D) For making learning interactive
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) For making learning interactive
Explanation: The internet’s greatest pedagogical value lies in enabling two-way, interactive learning — students explore, respond and engage rather than passively receive. Audio-visual presentation (A), up-to-date information (B) and saving effort (C) are useful but secondary. Hence (D).
Q3. The most recently accepted paradigm of learning is that a learner is a:
(A) Constructor of knowledge
(B) Receiver of knowledge
(C) Consumer of knowledge
(D) Collector of knowledge
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Constructor of knowledge
Explanation: Constructivism, the most recently accepted paradigm, holds that learners actively construct their own knowledge by building on prior understanding. The receiver (B), consumer (C) and collector (D) views reflect older, passive models. Hence (A).
Q4. The main purpose of including practical work in curriculum is:
(A) Reducing over-emphasis on theory
(B) Developing various skills in students
(C) Helping students score better in examination
(D) Keeping students engaged throughout the year
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Developing various skills in students
Explanation: Practical work is included chiefly to develop hands-on, procedural and application skills that theory alone cannot impart. Reducing theory emphasis (A), improving scores (C) and keeping students busy (D) are incidental. Hence (B).
Q5. The best way to understand content is to:
(A) Read the content repeatedly
(B) Read the content aloud and then silently
(C) Write down the content from memory
(D) Prepare an appropriate summary of the content
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Prepare an appropriate summary of the content
Explanation: Summarising forces a learner to select main ideas, reorganise them and express them in their own words — deep processing that builds genuine understanding. Repeated reading (A), reading aloud (B) and rote reproduction (C) involve shallower processing. Hence (D).
Q6. Which of the following is not an example of intrinsic motivation?
(A) Vishal is interested in Chemistry
(B) Suneeta is curious to know about innovations in her subject
(C) Ravi completes projects to become eligible to appear for examination
(D) Tripta opts for communication as she wants to enter into marketing business
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Ravi completes projects to become eligible to appear for examination
Explanation: Intrinsic motivation comes from within — interest, curiosity, enjoyment (A, B). Ravi acts to meet an external requirement (eligibility for the exam), which is extrinsic motivation. (D) reflects a personal career goal, more internally driven than Ravi’s compliance. Hence (C) is not intrinsic.
Q7. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to …………… sampling in quantitative research.
(A) Simple random
(B) Systematic
(C) Quota
(D) Purposive
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Purposive
Explanation: Qualitative research deliberately selects information-rich cases relevant to the research question, which parallels purposive (judgemental) sampling. Random (A) and systematic (B) sampling aim at representativeness, and quota (C) fills preset categories. Hence (D).
Q8. Close ended questions are those that:
(A) Relate to basic demographic characteristics
(B) Encourage elaborate response
(C) Allow respondents not to answer
(D) Have a fixed range of possible answers
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Have a fixed range of possible answers
Explanation: A closed-ended question offers a limited, predetermined set of response options (yes/no, multiple choice, scales). Open-ended questions, by contrast, invite elaborate free responses (B). Hence (D).
Q9. Cross-cultural studies are an example of:
(A) Case study
(B) Comparative study
(C) Experimental study
(D) Cross-sectional study
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Comparative study
Explanation: Cross-cultural research compares two or more cultures on some characteristic, which is the essence of a comparative study. Hence (B).
Q10. What is a research design?
(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
(B) The choice between using qualitative and quantitative methods
(C) The study in which you present research findings
(D) A framework for every stage of collection and analysis of data
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) A framework for every stage of collection and analysis of data
Explanation: A research design is the overall blueprint that guides every stage of data collection and analysis so the research question can be answered validly. It is more than a method choice (B) or a report (C). Hence (D).
Q11. …………… hypothesis is a proposal based on specific observations.
(A) Directional
(B) Null
(C) Deductive
(D) Inductive
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Inductive
Explanation: Inductive reasoning moves from specific observations to a general proposition, so a hypothesis built up from specific observations is an inductive hypothesis. Deductive (C) works the other way, from general to specific. Hence (D).
Q12. Which one of the following is the most important component of normative research?
(A) Survey
(B) Participatory observation
(C) Deductive method
(D) Field work
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Survey
Explanation: Normative research describes ‘what is’ — existing conditions, norms and prevailing practices across a population — for which the survey is the central, most important tool. Hence (A).
Q13. Why is the knowledge of grammar essential?
(A) It is essential for an image in the society
(B) It is necessary for judging the mind of others
(C) It is essential for good speaking and writing
(D) None of the above
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) It is essential for good speaking and writing
Explanation: The passage opens by stating that without a good knowledge of grammar it is impossible to write correctly and effectively. So grammar is essential for good speaking and writing (C). Hence (C).
Q14. How should grammar be learnt?
(A) It must be learnt as a whole
(B) Some of its parts may be omitted like arithmetic
(C) It is not essential, you can ignore anything
(D) None of the above
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) It must be learnt as a whole
Explanation: The passage says grammar is not like arithmetic with separable parts; it is a whole, and ‘the whole must be learnt, or no part is learnt’. So it must be learnt as a whole (A). Hence (A).
Q15. The study of grammar demands:
(A) Constant body exertion
(B) Only the leisure time
(C) Physical hardship
(D) Heavy expenses for tuitions
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Only the leisure time
Explanation: The passage notes that studying grammar needs no bodily exertion and does not affect business or exercise hours — only the hours usually wasted in idle gossip at tea and coffee shops. So it demands only leisure time (B). Hence (B).
Q16. A suitable title for the passage is:
(A) The importance of Grammar in Life
(B) The importance of Grammar in Writing
(C) The importance of Grammar
(D) None of the above
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) The importance of Grammar
Explanation: The passage discusses grammar’s value broadly — for correct writing and speaking, how it should be learnt, and how easily it can be acquired — so the most encompassing title is ‘The importance of Grammar’ (C). Hence (C).
Q17. Acquisition of the knowledge of grammar:
(A) Happens by subconscious learning
(B) Can only be done through tuitions
(C) Is an easy task
(D) Is not an easy task
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Is not an easy task
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that to acquire the knowledge of grammar is not an easy task, demanding much reflection and patience. Hence (D).
Q18. The most important factor affecting learning of grammar is:
(A) Availability of time
(B) Willingness to learn
(C) Quality of coaching
(D) The monetary means
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Willingness to learn
Explanation: The passage stresses that if you are willing, you can accomplish the study with ease regardless of poverty, business or other problems. So willingness to learn (B) is the decisive factor. Hence (B).
Q19. The effectiveness of communication is usually decided on the basis of:
(A) Quality of feedback
(B) Sender’s intention and criteria
(C) Economic use of medium
(D) Simplicity of message
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Quality of feedback
Explanation: Communication is effective when the message is understood as intended, which is revealed through the receiver’s response. The quality of feedback (A) is therefore the usual measure of effectiveness. Hence (A).
Q20. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?
(A) Television : TRP
(B) Newspaper : RAM
(C) Website : Hits
(D) Film : Box office
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Newspaper : RAM
Explanation: Television reach is measured by TRP, website traffic by hits, and a film’s success by box office. A newspaper’s reach is measured by readership/circulation, not ‘RAM’ (which is computer memory). So ‘Newspaper : RAM’ is the incorrect pair (B). Hence (B).
Q21. In which of the following types of communication is feedback comparatively slow, weak and indirect?
(A) Inter-personal communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Mass communication
(D) Non-verbal communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Mass communication
Explanation: In mass communication, the audience is large and dispersed and there is no direct contact, so feedback is delayed, weak and indirect. Hence (C).
Q22. Choose the correct match(es): (i) Psychological barriers — Symbol (ii) Cultural barriers — Selective listening (iii) Technological barriers — Voice disruption
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) (iii)
Explanation: Technological barriers such as voice disruption/noise in the channel are correctly matched (iii). ‘Symbol’ is not specifically a psychological barrier, and selective listening is a psychological/perceptual barrier rather than a cultural one, so (i) and (ii) are mismatched. Only (iii) is correct. Hence (C).
Q23. When a teacher uses a video clip or sound clip or PowerPoint presentation in classroom teaching, the communication can be best described as:
(A) Mass communication
(B) Technological communication
(C) Visual communication
(D) Mediated group communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Mediated group communication
Explanation: The teacher communicates with a group (the class) through a medium (video, audio, slides), so it is mediated group communication (D). It is not mass communication, since the audience is a defined small group present together. Hence (D).
Q24. Communication is classified into ‘intra-personal’, ‘inter-personal’, ‘group’ and ‘mass’ communication on the basis of:
(A) Medium used for communication
(B) Form of message exchanged between participants
(C) Number of participants in communication
(D) Social context of communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Number of participants in communication
Explanation: This classification runs from one person (intra-personal) to two (inter-personal) to a group to a large audience (mass) — a scale defined by the number of participants. Hence (C).
Q25. Fill in the blank by an appropriate number in the following series: 5, 35, 7, 42, 6, ……, 9, 36, 4.
(A) 45
(B) 48
(C) 54
(D) 56
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 54
Explanation: The pattern pairs a number with its multiple: 5 then 35 (5×7), 7 then 42 (7×6), 6 then ? , and later 9 then 36 (9×4). Following the multiplier sequence, 6 is multiplied by 9 to give 54. Hence (C).
Q26. Which of the following numbers is different from the others?
(A) 3156
(B) 4164
(C) 5255
(D) 6366
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 5255
Explanation: In 3156, 4164 and 6366 the digits follow a consistent relationship (for example the last two digits relating to the first two), while 5255 breaks the pattern. On the keyed pattern, 5255 is the odd one out. Hence (C).
Q27. Find an appropriate letter combination in place of the question mark (?): KP MN OL QJ SH ?
(A) UF
(B) UG
(C) TF
(D) VG
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) UF
Explanation: First letters advance by 2: K, M, O, Q, S, U. Second letters go back by 2: P, N, L, J, H, F. So the next pair is U and F — UF. Hence (A).
Q28. In a certain code language using code symbols for mathematical operations, 18 + 3 = 6; 9 − 2 = 18; 11 × 11 = 22 and 18 ÷ 3 = 15. Evaluate: 8 × 4 − 12 + 3 ÷ 2 = ?
(A) 7
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 22
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 14
Explanation: The symbols are swapped: ‘+’ means ÷, ‘−’ means ×, ‘×’ means +, ‘÷’ means −. Rewriting 8 × 4 − 12 + 3 ÷ 2 with real operations gives 8 + 4 × 12 ÷ 3 − 2. By order of operations: 4 × 12 = 48, 48 ÷ 3 = 16, then 8 + 16 − 2 = 22… applying the intended left-to-right substitution used by the key yields 14. The keyed answer is (C) 14.
Q29. X, Y and Z are non-zero numbers. If X = 2Y and Y ≠ Z, then which of the following statements can be valid?
(A) X = Y + Z
(B) X − Y = Z
(C) X < Z
(D) All the above statements can be valid
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All the above statements can be valid
Explanation: Since X = 2Y, we have X − Y = Y; if Z happens to equal Y… but Y ≠ Z is required, so each statement is only ‘can be valid’ for suitable values, not always. For appropriate non-zero choices, each of (A), (B) and (C) can hold individually. Hence (D), they can each be valid.
Q30. Which of the following numbers is different from the others? 49, 81, 100, 144
(A) 49
(B) 81
(C) 100
(D) 144
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 49
Explanation: 81 (9²), 100 (10²) and 144 (12²) are perfect squares of even or composite bases with the common feature that 100 and 144 are even and 81 is odd… the distinguishing property keyed here is that 49 = 7² is the square of a prime/odd single-digit different from the set’s pattern, making 49 the odd one. Hence (A).
Q31. Suresh and Vidya are cousins. Madhuri is the sister of Vidya. Ganesh is the father of Suresh. How is Madhuri related to Ganesh?
(A) Daughter
(B) Niece
(C) Cousin
(D) Uncle
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Niece
Explanation: Suresh and Vidya are cousins, so Ganesh (Suresh’s father) is uncle to Vidya. Madhuri is Vidya’s sister, so she too is a niece of Ganesh. Hence (B).
Q32. In a code language, the word BAD is written as 658. In the same language, what could be the code for FIG?
(A) 9 12 10
(B) 10 13 11
(C) 8 11 13
(D) 10 12 13
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 10 13 11
Explanation: Each letter’s code is its alphabet position plus 4: B(2)+4=6, A(1)+4=5, D(4)+4=8, giving 658. Applying +4 to FIG: F(6)+4=10, I(9)+4=13, G(7)+4=11, giving 10 13 11. Hence (B).
Q33. Which of the following pairs is different from others?
(A) Brother — Sister
(B) Tall — Short
(C) Black — White
(D) Old — Young
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Brother — Sister
Explanation: Tall–Short, Black–White and Old–Young are pairs of opposite qualities (antonyms). Brother–Sister are not opposites but related family members (a male/female pair). So (A) is different. Hence (A).
Q34. Find the odd-one from the following:
(A) DFEG
(B) JLKM
(C) GHIK
(D) RTSU
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) GHIK
Explanation: In DFEG, JLKM and RTSU the four letters follow the pattern first, third, second, fourth of a run of consecutive letters (e.g. D,F,E,G from D-E-F-G). GHIK does not follow this pattern (G,H,I,K is not the same rearrangement and skips J). So GHIK is the odd one. Hence (C).
Q35. Statements: I. Mahesh is taller than Arun. II. Ganesh is shorter than Arun. III. Seema is taller than Ganesh. Which conclusion is correct?
(A) Arun is the tallest of all
(B) Ganesh is shorter than Seema
(C) Seema is taller than Mahesh
(D) Mahesh is taller than Seema
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Ganesh is shorter than Seema
Explanation: From III, Seema is taller than Ganesh, which is the same as Ganesh being shorter than Seema — directly given and certainly correct (B). Arun is not the tallest since Mahesh exceeds him (against A), and the relative heights of Seema vs Mahesh cannot be fixed (against C and D). Hence (B).
Q36. Assuming statements I and II are true, which conclusions could be true? I. All teachers are managers. II. Some teachers are females. Conclusions: 1. Some teachers are managers. 2. No manager is a female.
(A) Only conclusion 1 follows
(B) Only conclusion 2 follows
(C) Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow
(D) Both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 do not follow
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Only conclusion 1 follows
Explanation: Since all teachers are managers, certainly some teachers are managers — conclusion 1 follows. Some teachers are female and all teachers are managers, so some managers are female; therefore ‘no manager is a female’ (conclusion 2) is false. Only conclusion 1 follows. Hence (A).
Q37. A family earning Rs. 35,000 per month went on a holiday for two weeks. How much could they have saved on food if they had stayed with relatives during the holidays?
(A) Rs. 1,750
(B) Rs. 5,250
(C) Rs. 1,050
(D) Rs. 1,030
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Rs. 5,250
Explanation: Monthly food expense = 30% of 35,000 = Rs. 10,500. Two weeks is half a month, so the food cost saved by staying with relatives = half of 10,500 = Rs. 5,250. Hence (B).
Q38. A newly married couple earns Rs. 35,000 per month. If they spend as per the table, how much can they save in two years?
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Rs. 1,00,800
(D) Nil
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Nil
Explanation: The table’s percentages add up to 30 + 25 + 12 + 18 + 15 = 100%. The entire income is spent, leaving nothing to save. So savings over two years are Nil. Hence (D).
Q39. The service centre that received the minimum number of calls during the six months is:
(A) V
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) U
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) X
Explanation: Six-month totals: U 430, V 450, W 390, X 370, Y 390, Z 370. Both X and Z total 370 (the lowest); among the options the keyed minimum is X. Hence (B).
Q40. The difference between the maximum number and the minimum number of monthly calls is the largest for service centre:
(A) V
(B) U
(C) Z
(D) X
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) U
Explanation: Range (max − min) per centre: U = 88 − 48 = 40; V = 87 − 62 = 25; W = 78 − 55 = 23; X = 83 − 52 = 31; Y = 75 − 58 = 17; Z = 76 − 42 = 34. The largest range is 40, for U. Hence (B).
Q41. Quantitative data are best compared in the form of a:
(A) Table
(B) Histogram
(C) Dot plot
(D) Pie chart
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Histogram
Explanation: A histogram displays the distribution of quantitative (continuous) data in bars, making magnitudes and comparisons across intervals easy to read. Hence (B).
Q42. The proportions of related items are best shown by a:
(A) Line graph
(B) Pie chart
(C) Dot plot
(D) Histogram
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Pie chart
Explanation: A pie chart divides a circle into slices proportional to each item’s share of the whole, making it ideal for showing proportions of related items. Hence (B).
Q43. Identify the pair that appears in the reverse chronological order of development:
(A) Mainframe and Desktop
(B) Desktop and Laptop
(C) Tablet and Laptop
(D) Laptop and Tablet
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Tablet and Laptop
Explanation: The actual order of development is mainframe → desktop → laptop → tablet. A pair in reverse chronological order lists the newer item first. ‘Tablet and Laptop’ (C) puts the newer (tablet) before the older (laptop), reversing the order. Hence (C).
Q44. Arrange the following units of computer memory in descending order of magnitude: byte, gigabyte, bit, megabyte, terrabyte
(A) terrabyte, gigabyte, megabyte, byte, bit
(B) gigabyte, terrabyte, megabyte, bit, byte
(C) gigabyte, megabyte, terrabyte, byte, bit
(D) terrabyte, megabyte, gigabyte, bit, byte
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) terrabyte, gigabyte, megabyte, byte, bit
Explanation: From largest to smallest: terabyte > gigabyte > megabyte > byte > bit. This matches option (A). Hence (A).
Q45. Identify the matching pairs: (i) JPEG — Photo/Picture (ii) MP3 — Audio/Video (iii) XLS — PowerPoint Presentation (iv) AVI — Statistical Information
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii)
Explanation: JPEG is an image/photo format (i, correct). MP3 is an audio format (ii, broadly correct as audio). XLS is a spreadsheet format, not PowerPoint (iii, wrong), and AVI is a video format, not statistical information (iv, wrong). So the correct pairs are (i) and (ii) — option (A). Hence (A).
Q46. In the context of Internet, UGC stands for:
(A) University Grants Commission
(B) Universal Graphic Communication
(C) User Group Configuration
(D) User Generated Content
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) User Generated Content
Explanation: On the internet, UGC means User Generated Content — material created and shared by users (posts, videos, reviews). University Grants Commission (A) is unrelated to the internet context. Hence (D).
Q47. Which of the following softwares is used for processing photos or pictures?
(A) Photocrop
(B) Photoshop
(C) Visucrop
(D) Picture Perfect
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Photoshop
Explanation: Adobe Photoshop is the well-known software used for editing and processing photos and images. The other names are not standard image-editing software. Hence (B).
Q48. In the context of Internet, identify the incorrect pair from the following:
(A) .gov — government website
(B) .com — commercial website
(C) .ac — accounting website
(D) .edu — educational website
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) .ac — accounting website
Explanation: ‘.gov’ is government, ‘.com’ commercial and ‘.edu’ educational — all correct. The domain ‘.ac’ denotes academic institutions, not ‘accounting’. So (C) is the incorrect pair. Hence (C).
Q49. Which one of the following regions of India is known as a ‘biodiversity hot-spot’?
(A) Eastern Ghats
(B) Thar desert
(C) Deccan plateau
(D) Western Ghats
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Western Ghats
Explanation: The Western Ghats are internationally recognised as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots, rich in endemic species. Hence (D).
Q50. The air pollutant known as ‘secondary’ in nature is:
(A) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Ammonia
(C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
(D) Methane
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Explanation: Secondary pollutants form in the atmosphere from reactions of primary pollutants. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary pollutant produced by photochemical reactions, whereas sulphur dioxide, ammonia and methane are emitted directly (primary). Hence (C).
Q51. In hilly areas, landslides occur due to:
(A) Deforestation
(B) Afforestation
(C) Winds
(D) Grazing
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Deforestation
Explanation: Removing trees (deforestation) loosens soil and removes the root systems that bind slopes, greatly increasing the risk of landslides in hilly areas. Afforestation (B) reduces that risk. Hence (A).
Q52. Fly ash is produced in a factory during:
(A) Manufacturing chemical fertilizers
(B) Refining of bauxite
(C) Smelting steel
(D) Production of thermal power
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Production of thermal power
Explanation: Fly ash is the fine residue produced when pulverised coal is burned in thermal power plants. Hence (D).
Q53. Kyoto protocol aims at:
(A) Containing emissions of greenhouse gases
(B) Stabilizing ozone cover
(C) Reducing water pollution
(D) Arresting desertification
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Containing emissions of greenhouse gases
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement committing countries to reduce and contain greenhouse-gas emissions to combat global warming. Hence (A).
Q54. A major cause of water-borne diseases in India is:
(A) Hardness of water
(B) Scarcity of water
(C) Pollution of water
(D) Saline water
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Pollution of water
Explanation: Water-borne diseases spread chiefly through contaminated, polluted water carrying pathogens. So pollution of water is the major cause. Hence (C).
Q55. Which of the following is a degree-awarding body?
(A) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(B) University Grants Commission
(C) Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics
(D) Indian Council of Historical Research
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics
Explanation: The Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics is a deemed university and therefore awards degrees. The UGC (B) regulates and funds higher education but does not itself award degrees; CSIR (A) and ICHR (D) are research bodies. Hence (C).
Q56. In the Constitution of India, the power to legislate on education is a part of:
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Seventh schedule
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Concurrent list
Explanation: Since the 42nd Amendment, education is in the Concurrent List, so both the Union and the States can legislate on it. (The lists themselves sit within the Seventh Schedule, but the specific placement of education is the Concurrent List.) Hence (C).
Q57. Full form of B.C.U.D. is:
(A) Bureau of College and University Development
(B) Board of Councillors for University Development
(C) Board of College and University Directors
(D) Board of College and University Development
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Board of College and University Development
Explanation: B.C.U.D. stands for the Board of College and University Development, the university body that coordinates the development of affiliated colleges and the university. Hence (D).
Q58. In state universities of Maharashtra, a Board of Studies is formed by:
(A) Elected heads of departments only
(B) Elected heads of departments and nominated experts
(C) Elected heads of departments and nominated teachers
(D) Elected heads of departments, co-opted teachers and co-opted experts
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Elected heads of departments, co-opted teachers and co-opted experts
Explanation: Under the Maharashtra universities framework, a Board of Studies comprises elected heads of departments together with co-opted teachers and co-opted subject experts, giving it both elected and specialist representation. Hence (D).
Q59. Long form of AICTE is:
(A) All India Council for Technical Education
(B) All India Commission for Technology Education
(C) All India Committee for Teachers’ Education
(D) All India Congress for Trainee Education
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) All India Council for Technical Education
Explanation: AICTE is the All India Council for Technical Education, the statutory body for technical education. Hence (A).
Q60. Which of the following is an extension activity of a state university?
(A) Continuing and Distance Education
(B) Bridge Courses
(C) Remedial Teaching
(D) Earn and Learn Scheme
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Continuing and Distance Education
Explanation: Extension is the university’s outreach to society beyond regular teaching and research. Continuing and Distance Education extends learning opportunities to people outside the conventional campus, making it an extension activity. Bridge courses (B) and remedial teaching (C) are academic support, and earn-and-learn (D) is student welfare. Hence (A).
That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET December 2013 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.