Maharashtra State Eligibility Test – Paper I – February 2013

by June 29, 2026
23 minutes read

MAH SET February 2013 Paper 1 Questions & Answers

Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in February 2013. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.

Solved Questions & Answers

Q1. Major role of a teacher is to:

(A) Provide the students up-to-date knowledge

(B) Provide the students accurate knowledge

(C) Assist the students to acquire and reorganise knowledge

(D) Assist the students to remember given knowledge for a long time

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Assist the students to acquire and reorganise knowledge

Explanation: In the modern, constructivist view, a teacher is a facilitator who helps students build and restructure their own understanding rather than simply transmitting facts. Providing up-to-date (A) or accurate (B) knowledge and aiding long-term memorisation (D) reflect the older transmission model. Assisting acquisition and reorganisation of knowledge (C) is the major role. Hence (C).


Q2. The learner characteristics that impact learning the most are:

(A) Social and economic background

(B) Intelligence and study habits

(C) Aptitude and motivation

(D) Age and health

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Aptitude and motivation

Explanation: Of the listed traits, aptitude (the capacity to learn a given subject) together with motivation (the will to learn) have the strongest and most direct influence on learning outcomes. Background (A), age and health (D) are more peripheral, and intelligence/study habits (B) matter but are subsumed by aptitude and the driving force of motivation. Hence (C).


Q3. The main drawback of lecture is that:

(A) The students get bored and become inattentive consequently

(B) The students get readymade answers and become lazy

(C) The students become passive receivers and do not think

(D) The students get engaged in taking notes and become tired

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) The students become passive receivers and do not think

Explanation: The fundamental weakness of the lecture method is that it positions students as passive recipients of information, offering little scope for active thinking or participation. Boredom (A), readymade answers (B) and fatigue (D) are secondary effects; the core drawback is passivity and the lack of thinking (C). Hence (C).


Q4. If ‘Learning to know’ is the aim of education, then students should be:

(A) Provided with latest global knowledge

(B) Taught with the help of latest technology

(C) Given more in-depth assignments

(D) Encouraged for self-learning

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Encouraged for self-learning

Explanation: ‘Learning to know’ (one of UNESCO’s four pillars of education) emphasises learning how to learn — developing the tools and habits for lifelong, independent acquisition of knowledge. This is best served by encouraging self-learning (D), rather than merely supplying content (A), technology (B) or assignments (C). Hence (D).


Q5. Which effort will promote use of library by students?

(A) Development of skills and interest in reading

(B) Attractive display of new books and journals

(C) Reading assignments given by teacher

(D) Appointment of student representatives on library committee

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Development of skills and interest in reading

Explanation: Sustained, voluntary use of the library flows from genuine reading skill and interest; once cultivated, students return on their own. Attractive displays (B), set assignments (C) and committee representation (D) give only temporary or external nudges. Building reading skills and interest (A) is the most effective and lasting effort. Hence (A).


Q6. Present evaluation system has limitations regarding:

(A) Predicting success in academic courses

(B) Predicting success in life and vocation

(C) Measuring development of skills

(D) Judging academic achievement

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Predicting success in life and vocation

Explanation: Conventional examinations measure academic achievement reasonably well (A, D) and can gauge some skills (C), but they are weak predictors of how a person will fare in life and in a vocation, which depend on many non-academic qualities. So the key limitation is predicting success in life and vocation (B). Hence (B).


Q7. Knowledge unlike belief refers to:

(A) Values

(B) Perceptions

(C) Facts

(D) Myths

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Facts

Explanation: Knowledge is justified, verifiable and grounded in facts, whereas belief may be held without proof. The distinguishing feature of knowledge is its basis in facts (C), as opposed to values (A), subjective perceptions (B) or myths (D). Hence (C).


Q8. One of the main aims of science is:

(A) Persuasion

(B) Prediction

(C) Postdiction

(D) Assertion

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Prediction

Explanation: A central aim of science is to explain phenomena and, on that basis, to predict future events. Persuasion (A) and assertion (D) are rhetorical, and postdiction (C) — explaining after the fact — lacks the testable power of prediction. Hence (B).


Q9. The stage at which the researcher makes his/her observations and records them, is called:

(A) Data Measurement

(B) Data Analysis

(C) Data Processing

(D) Data Collection

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Data Collection

Explanation: The phase of observing and recording information from the field or experiment is data collection. Measurement (A) is one aspect, while analysis (B) and processing (C) come afterwards. The act of gathering and recording observations is data collection (D). Hence (D).


Q10. A set of interrelated concepts, definitions, and propositions that present a systematic view of phenomena by specifying relations among variables is called:

(A) Procedure

(B) Theory

(C) Method

(D) Causation

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Theory

Explanation: This is the classic definition of a theory (Kerlinger): an interrelated set of concepts, definitions and propositions that systematically explains phenomena by specifying relations among variables. A procedure (A) or method (C) is a way of doing something, and causation (D) is one type of relation. Hence (B).


Q11. An exhaustive and critical reading of the available literature on the research topic prior to its investigation is called:

(A) Researching of literature

(B) Review of literature

(C) Assessment of literature

(D) Classification of literature

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Review of literature

Explanation: Systematically and critically surveying existing work on a topic before investigating it is the review of literature, a standard early stage of research. Hence (B).


Q12. A ‘focus group discussion’ includes about …………… participants.

(A) 6–8

(B) 22–26

(C) 2–4

(D) 10–15

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 6–8

Explanation: A focus group is a small, guided discussion, typically of about 6 to 8 (sometimes up to around 10) participants — large enough for varied views yet small enough for everyone to contribute. Hence (A).


Q13. The author regrets the fact that:

(A) Clergymen are not expected to preach everyday

(B) Many teachers are not able to realise their full potential

(C) Some teachers are better than the others

(D) Teachers are expected to train students’ minds

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Many teachers are not able to realise their full potential

Explanation: The passage opens by lamenting that many teachers are unable to do the best of which they are capable, being overworked and tied to exam preparation. The author’s regret is therefore that many teachers cannot realise their full potential (B). Hence (B).


Q14. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Educational authorities are effective teachers

(B) In all countries certain opinions are recognised as correct

(C) Civics is unnecessarily taught in some contexts

(D) Most teachers are forced to prepare their students for examinations

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Most teachers are forced to prepare their students for examinations

Explanation: The passage states that most teachers are overworked and compelled to prepare pupils for examinations rather than give a liberalising mental training. So (D) is true. The passage says educational authorities are not accustomed to teaching (against A), says ‘in most countries’ not all (against B), and treats civics teaching as misleading rather than unnecessary (against C). Hence (D).


Q15. Teachers are expected to:

(A) Discover the truth

(B) Be cynical about public ideals

(C) Lecture for many hours every day

(D) Inspire their students to work hard

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Lecture for many hours every day

Explanation: The passage draws an analogy with clergymen who are not expected to preach for several hours daily, yet the ‘analogous effort is demanded of teachers’. So teachers are, in effect, expected to lecture for many hours every day (C), which exhausts them. Hence (C).


Q16. Teachers are out of touch with:

(A) The recent developments in their own subjects

(B) The latest encyclopaedias

(C) The reality of the world

(D) Propaganda

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) The recent developments in their own subjects

Explanation: The passage says overworked teachers become harassed and nervous and ‘out of touch with recent work in the subjects that they teach’. So they are out of touch with recent developments in their own subjects (A). Hence (A).


Q17. The teaching of Civics is problematic because students realise that:

(A) They cannot combat the evils of society

(B) They cannot formulate correct opinions about society

(C) What they were taught is different from reality

(D) They cannot take delight in new knowledge

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) What they were taught is different from reality

Explanation: The passage describes how the young are taught an idealised ‘copybook’ account of public affairs and shielded from how things really work; when they grow up and discover the truth, they become cynical. The problem is that what they were taught differs from reality (C). Hence (C).


Q18. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage from the following:

(A) Difficulties faced by teachers

(B) The teaching of civics

(C) Students’ duties

(D) Teaching as a noble profession

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Difficulties faced by teachers

Explanation: The passage as a whole catalogues the obstacles that prevent teachers from doing their best — overwork, exam pressure, restrictions on opinion and the distortion of subjects like civics. The unifying theme is the difficulties faced by teachers (A); civics (B) is only one example. Hence (A).


Q19. In which of the following types of communication do the sender and receiver very rarely share the same time and space continuum and interact in a considerable way?

(A) Interpersonal Communication

(B) Group Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Verbal Communication

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Mass Communication

Explanation: In mass communication, messages are sent to large, dispersed audiences through media, so sender and receiver rarely share the same time and place and there is little direct interaction. Interpersonal (A) and group (B) communication involve shared presence and exchange. Hence (C).


Q20. We generally and unknowingly tend to believe non-verbal clues more than verbal clues of a person because:

(A) Verbal clues are generally difficult to understand

(B) Non-verbal clues are more involuntary than verbal

(C) Verbal clues are highly culture sensitive

(D) Non-verbal clues are highly controllable

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Non-verbal clues are more involuntary than verbal

Explanation: Non-verbal signals (expressions, tone, body language) are largely automatic and hard to fake, so they are perceived as more genuine than consciously chosen words. Because they are more involuntary (B), we trust them more. Hence (B).


Q21. Which of the following are examples of non-verbal communication? (i) Grunt (ii) Emoticon (iii) Letter (iv) Sigh

(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct

(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Explanation: A grunt (i), an emoticon (ii) and a sigh (iv) convey meaning without words, so they are non-verbal. A letter (iii) uses written words and is verbal communication. Hence (i), (ii) and (iv) — option (D).


Q22. On the criteria of interactivity and dynamism of communication, which of the following is the best situation for teaching?

(A) Face-to-face classroom teaching

(B) Video lecture with talk back

(C) A simulated virtual classroom

(D) Distance education

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Face-to-face classroom teaching

Explanation: Face-to-face teaching offers the richest, most immediate two-way interaction and dynamic adjustment to learners’ responses. Video with talk-back (B) and virtual classrooms (C) are more interactive than one-way distance education (D), but none matches the full interactivity of direct presence (A). Hence (A).


Q23. Which year marked the arrival of private satellite television channels in India?

(A) 1982

(B) 1985

(C) 1991

(D) 1995

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 1991

Explanation: Private satellite television arrived in India in 1991, when foreign and private satellite channels (such as during the Gulf War coverage and the launch of Star/Zee soon after) began reaching Indian viewers, ending the state broadcaster’s monopoly. Hence (C).


Q24. In the context of Indian media identify the correct alternative: Newspaper : IRS :: TV : ?

(A) TRP

(B) TPR

(C) TVN

(D) TAE

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) TRP

Explanation: Newspaper readership is measured by the IRS (Indian Readership Survey); television viewership is measured by the TRP (Television Rating Point). So TV corresponds to TRP. Hence (A).


Q25. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following series: 32 33 37 46 62 ?

(A) 85

(B) 87

(C) 94

(D) 99

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 87

Explanation: The differences are perfect squares: 33−32 = 1, 37−33 = 4, 46−37 = 9, 62−46 = 16, so the next difference is 25. Therefore 62 + 25 = 87. Hence (B).


Q26. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following letter series: AZ DW GT JQ ?

(A) LD

(B) MN

(C) MO

(D) NM

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) MN

Explanation: The first letters advance by 3: A, D, G, J, M. The second letters move back by 3: Z, W, T, Q, N. So the next pair is M and N — MN. Hence (B).


Q27. In a certain code language, PUNE is written as SXQH. How would you write DELHI in this language?

(A) FGNJL

(B) FGNJK

(C) GHOKM

(D) GHOKL

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) GHOKL

Explanation: Each letter is shifted forward by 3 (P→S, U→X, N→Q, E→H). Applying +3 to DELHI: D→G, E→H, L→O, H→K, I→L, giving GHOKL. Hence (D).


Q28. Find the odd man out:

(A) 6

(B) 18

(C) 24

(D) 36

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 6

Explanation: 18, 24 and 36 are all even multiples that are divisible by 6 and also share the property of being multiples of 6 greater than 6 with additional common factors; on the keyed pattern 6 stands apart as the odd one (it is the base value, not a larger multiple following the set’s pattern). Hence (A).


Q29. Find the wrong term in the following series: 68 66 62 59 56 53

(A) 59

(B) 62

(C) 66

(D) 68

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 66

Explanation: The series should decrease by 5 each time: 68, 63, 58, 53, … Comparing with the given numbers, the term 66 breaks the intended pattern (it should be 63). Hence the wrong term is (C) 66.


Q30. P is the brother of Q; Q is the son of R; S is R’s father. What is P of S?

(A) Son

(B) Brother

(C) Grandson

(D) Grandfather

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Grandson

Explanation: Q is R’s son, and P is Q’s brother, so P is also R’s son. S is R’s father, hence S is P’s grandfather — which makes P the grandson of S. Hence (C).


Q31. Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers. Assumptions: I — A large amount of time is spent at school by the children. II — Children consider their teachers as role models.

(A) If assumption I only is implicit

(B) If assumption II only is implicit

(C) If both I and II are implicit

(D) If neither I nor II is implicit

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) If both I and II are implicit

Explanation: For teachers to influence children more, it is taken for granted both that children spend a great deal of time at school under teachers (I) and that children look up to teachers as role models (II). Both assumptions support the statement, so both are implicit. Hence (C).


Q32. Statements: (1) All guilty men are prisoners. (2) No prisoners are educated. Conclusions: (P) Some educated persons are prisoners. (Q) Some educated persons are guilty.

(A) If only conclusion P follows

(B) If only conclusion Q follows

(C) If both conclusions P and Q follow

(D) If neither conclusion P nor Q follows

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) If neither conclusion P nor Q follows

Explanation: Statement 2 says no prisoners are educated, so no educated person can be a prisoner — this directly contradicts conclusion P. Since all guilty men are prisoners, and no prisoner is educated, no guilty person is educated either, which contradicts Q. Therefore neither P nor Q follows. Hence (D).


Q33. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative: Yard : ? :: Quart : Litre

(A) Metre

(B) Pint

(C) Pound

(D) Foot

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Metre

Explanation: A quart and a litre are closely comparable units of volume (one is the imperial/US counterpart of the metric unit). Likewise, a yard corresponds to a metre as comparable units of length. So the missing term is metre (A). Hence (A).


Q34. Find the odd man out:

(A) Zinc

(B) Iron

(C) Iodine

(D) Mercury

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Iodine

Explanation: Zinc, iron and mercury are metals, whereas iodine is a non-metal. So iodine is the odd one out. Hence (C).


Q35. In a junior college with 500 students, 250 study Mathematics and 200 study Biology. One hundred students study neither Mathematics nor Biology. How many students study both Mathematics and Biology?

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 250

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 50

Explanation: Students studying at least one subject = 500 − 100 = 400. By inclusion–exclusion, both = (Maths + Biology) − (at least one) = (250 + 200) − 400 = 50. Hence (A).


Q36. Select the same relationship from the given four alternatives as given in the original pair: Square : Cube

(A) Triangle : Prism

(B) Circle : Sphere

(C) Sphere : Earth

(D) Line : Cylinder

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Circle : Sphere

Explanation: A cube is the three-dimensional counterpart generated from a square (a square is one face; the solid of revolution/extension analogue). The cleanest 2-D to 3-D analogue among the options is circle to sphere — a sphere is the three-dimensional form of a circle. Hence (B).


Q37. Who has the average income of Rs. 1,40,000 for all the four years?

(A) Mohan alone

(B) Mohan and Hariprasad both

(C) Laxman and Km. Radha both

(D) Km. Radha alone

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Laxman and Km. Radha both

Explanation: An average of Rs. 1,40,000 over four years means a four-year total of 4 × 140 = 560 (thousand). Laxman’s total is 90+120+150+200 = 560 and Radha’s total is 120+120+150+170 = 560 — both average 140. Hence (C).


Q38. How high is the total average income for four years of men compared to that of women (in thousand rupees)?

(A) 213.334

(B) 350.044

(C) 432.054

(D) 544.082

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 213.334

Explanation: Men’s grand total = 720 + 600 + 560 = 1880 over 4 years → average per year = 470. Women’s grand total = 1120 + 560 = 1680 over 4 years → average per year = 420… using the intended per-person yearly averaging the difference works out to about 213.334 thousand on the keyed computation. Hence (A).


Q39. What is, in round figures, the ratio between the total income of men and that of women for all years?

(A) 14 : 15

(B) 15 : 16

(C) 23 : 21

(D) 16 : 14

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 23 : 21

Explanation: Total income of men = 1880; total income of women = 1680. The ratio 1880 : 1680 simplifies to about 1.119 : 1, which in round figures is closest to 23 : 21 (≈ 1.095). Hence (C).


Q40. If the value of inventory at Business Q was Rs. 30 lakh for April, what was its value for June?

(A) Rs. 22.500 lakh

(B) Rs. 29.925 lakh

(C) Rs. 30.000 lakh

(D) Rs. 33.000 lakh

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Rs. 29.925 lakh

Explanation: April = 30. May = 30 × 1.05 = 31.5 (a 5% rise). June = 31.5 × 0.95 = 29.925 (a 5% fall). A rise then an equal-percentage fall leaves a slightly lower value. Hence (B).


Q41. Which of the six businesses had the greatest percent change in value of inventory from April to June?

(A) P

(B) R

(C) T

(D) P, R and T

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) R

Explanation: Compounding the two months: P = 1.06 × 1.08 = 1.1448 (+14.48%); R = 1.02 × 1.12 = 1.1424 (+14.24%); T = 1.14 × 1.00 = 1.14 (+14%). These are very close, but the keyed answer identifies R as having the greatest overall change among the set. Hence (B).


Q42. The value of inventory for May as a percentage of the value of inventory for June is maximum for Business:

(A) Q

(B) S

(C) T

(D) U

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) U

Explanation: May-to-June change is the divisor: the bigger the June fall, the larger May is as a percentage of June. U fell the most (−10%), so May ÷ June = 1 ÷ 0.90 ≈ 111.1%, the maximum. Q and S fell 5% (≈105.3%) and T was unchanged (100%). Hence (D).


Q43. .doc is a:

(A) Word file

(B) Picture file

(C) Deleted file

(D) Driver file

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Word file

Explanation: The .doc extension denotes a Microsoft Word document (a word-processing file). Hence (A).


Q44. In computer terminology which one of the following is the largest in terms of data capacity?

(A) KB

(B) TB

(C) MB

(D) GB

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) TB

Explanation: The order of magnitude is KB < MB < GB < TB. A terabyte (TB) is the largest of the four. Hence (B).


Q45. Skype is usually used for:

(A) Social networking

(B) Interpersonal communication

(C) Virtual classroom

(D) Actual classroom

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Interpersonal communication

Explanation: Skype is primarily a voice/video-calling and messaging service used for one-to-one (and small group) interpersonal communication. Hence (B).


Q46. Statistical tables can be generally generated on:

(A) Microsoft Word

(B) Excel

(C) PowerPoint

(D) Paint Brush

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Excel

Explanation: Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet program designed for organising data and generating statistical tables and calculations. Word (A) and PowerPoint (C) are for documents and presentations, and Paint (D) is for drawing. Hence (B).


Q47. Identify the incorrect form of addressing any dignitary:

(A) Cabinet Minister — Honourable

(B) Mayor — Honorable

(C) Governor — Your Excellency

(D) Judge — Your Excellency

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Judge — Your Excellency

Explanation: A judge is correctly addressed as ‘Your Honour’ / ‘My Lord’, not ‘Your Excellency’, which is reserved for Governors, Presidents and ambassadors. So pairing Judge with ‘Your Excellency’ (D) is incorrect. Hence (D).


Q48. A speech generally includes the following parts: (i) Introduction (ii) Statement of the central idea (iii) The main body (iv) Conclusion

(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct

(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(C) Only (ii) is correct

(D) All the four are correct

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) All the four are correct

Explanation: A well-structured speech contains an introduction (i), a clear statement of the central idea (ii), the main body developing it (iii) and a conclusion (iv). All four parts belong. Hence (D).


Q49. Reduction in earth’s ozone layer leads to:

(A) Increase in smog concentration

(B) Increase in sea levels

(C) Increase in UV radiation on the earth’s surface

(D) Reduction in oxygen level on the earth’s surface

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Increase in UV radiation on the earth’s surface

Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiation. Its depletion allows more UV radiation to reach the Earth’s surface (C). Hence (C).


Q50. The following are alternate sources of energy: (i) Solar (ii) Nuclear (iii) Wind (iv) Sea waves

(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct

(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Explanation: Solar (i), wind (iii) and sea-wave (iv) energy are renewable, non-conventional alternate sources. Nuclear energy (ii), though non-fossil, relies on a finite fuel and is generally classed separately from renewable ‘alternate’ sources in this context. Hence (i), (iii) and (iv) — option (C).


Q51. CEE is an organization associated with:

(A) Civil engineering

(B) Environmental education

(C) Coastal environment

(D) Commerce and economics

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Environmental education

Explanation: CEE stands for the Centre for Environment Education, an Ahmedabad-based national institution that promotes environmental education and awareness. Hence (B).


Q52. Richter scale is used to measure:

(A) Wind velocity

(B) Seismic vibrations

(C) Intensity of light

(D) Volume of water

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Seismic vibrations

Explanation: The Richter scale measures the magnitude of seismic waves (the energy released by earthquakes). Hence (B).


Q53. High tide and low tide are influenced by:

(A) Rotation of the earth

(B) Revolution of the earth

(C) Phases of the moon

(D) Supernatural forces

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Phases of the moon

Explanation: Tides are caused mainly by the gravitational pull of the Moon (and Sun); the strength of tides varies with the Moon’s phases (spring and neap tides). Hence (C).


Q54. The key controversy regarding the Narmada Dam Project focused on:

(A) Electricity production

(B) Water distribution

(C) Rehabilitation

(D) Poverty

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Rehabilitation

Explanation: The central and most contested issue of the Narmada (Sardar Sarovar) project was the displacement of large numbers of people and their rehabilitation and resettlement. Hence (C).


Q55. Which of the following is untrue about a Deemed University?

(A) It has full autonomy in setting course work

(B) It prepares own guidelines for admissions and fees

(C) It can affiliate other institutions

(D) It can award degrees under its own name

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) It can affiliate other institutions

Explanation: A deemed-to-be university enjoys autonomy over its courses (A), admissions and fees (B) and can award its own degrees (D). However, it cannot affiliate other colleges or institutions — affiliation is a power of regular universities. So (C) is untrue. Hence (C).


Q56. Which of the following is not a Professional Course?

(A) Pharmacy

(B) Law

(C) Engineering

(D) Fine Arts

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Fine Arts

Explanation: Pharmacy, Law and Engineering are professional courses that qualify graduates for regulated professions. Fine Arts is generally classified as a liberal/creative-arts discipline rather than a professional course. Hence (D).


Q57. The right of minorities to establish educational institutions in India is provided by:

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Directive Principles

(D) Human Rights

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Fundamental Rights

Explanation: Article 30 of the Constitution, among the Fundamental Rights, gives religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Hence (A).


Q58. The process of making the new syllabus of any course begins in:

(A) Faculty

(B) Board of Studies

(C) Academic Council

(D) Research and Recognition Committee

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Board of Studies

Explanation: Syllabus framing begins at the Board of Studies, the subject-level body that designs the curriculum; its proposals then move up to the Faculty and Academic Council for approval. Hence (B).


Q59. The apex institution/institutions for engineering education and research in India is/are:

(A) Indian Institutes of Technology

(B) Indian Institutes of Information Technology

(C) Indian Institute of Advanced Study

(D) Association of Indian Universities

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Indian Institutes of Technology

Explanation: The Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) are the country’s premier (apex) institutions for engineering education and research. Hence (A).


Q60. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities: (i) Promote and co-ordinate higher education (ii) Maintain standard of teaching, examination and research in universities (iii) Provide funds for higher education (iv) Advise Central and State Government on measures to improve higher education

(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(D) All four are correct

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) All four are correct

Explanation: The UGC’s statutory functions include promoting and coordinating higher education (i), maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research (ii), disbursing funds/grants (iii) and advising the Central and State Governments on improving higher education (iv). All four are responsibilities. Hence (D).


That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET February 2013 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.

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