MAH SET November 2011 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in November 2011. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. The least important teacher characteristic for effective teaching in primary education is:
(A) Effective communication skill
(B) Empathy for students
(C) Impartial attitude towards students
(D) High academic achievement
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) High academic achievement
Explanation: For young children, what matters most is the ability to connect: clear communication (A), empathy (B) and fairness (C) directly shape the learning climate. A teacher’s own high academic achievement (D) has the weakest bearing on effectiveness at the primary level, where deep subject expertise is less critical than relational and communicative skills. Hence (D).
Q2. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Motivated learners learn better than unmotivated
(B) Girls learn better than boys
(C) Children learn better than adults
(D) Creative persons learn better than intelligent
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Motivated learners learn better than unmotivated
Explanation: Motivation is a well-established driver of learning, so motivated learners outperform unmotivated ones (A). The other claims are unsupported generalisations — there is no blanket evidence that girls learn better than boys (B), children better than adults (C), or creative people better than intelligent ones (D). Hence (A).
Q3. Which of the following guarantees better retention?
(A) Use of visual aids by teacher
(B) Active participation of the students
(C) Use of relevant examples
(D) Meaningful learning experiences
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Meaningful learning experiences
Explanation: Retention is strongest when new material is connected to existing understanding and made personally significant — that is, through meaningful learning experiences (D). Visual aids (A), participation (B) and examples (C) all assist, but they support meaningful learning rather than guaranteeing retention on their own. Hence (D).
Q4. What is the current thinking on learning?
(A) Learner’s mind is an empty vessel and teacher fills it with knowledge
(B) Every learner builds concepts based on his previous knowledge
(C) Learner eagerly absorbs information given by the teacher
(D) Learning is a spontaneous response given to the stimulus of teaching
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Every learner builds concepts based on his previous knowledge
Explanation: Modern (constructivist) thinking holds that learners actively construct new understanding by building on prior knowledge (B). The ’empty vessel’ view (A) and passive-absorption views (C, D) reflect older transmission models that constructivism has replaced. Hence (B).
Q5. Computer can help enhance creative thinking when:
(A) Students are asked to view effective powerpoint presentations
(B) Students are asked to collect latest information through Internet
(C) Students are asked to solve open-ended problems using a computer
(D) Students are asked to prepare a research report using computer
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Students are asked to solve open-ended problems using a computer
Explanation: Creativity is fostered when learners generate their own solutions to problems that have many possible answers. Solving open-ended problems with a computer (C) demands divergent, original thinking. Viewing slides (A), collecting information (B) and preparing reports (D) are largely receptive or convergent tasks. Hence (C).
Q6. What is the main purpose of inclusion of projects, practicals and seminars by students?
(A) To increase active participation of the students
(B) To evaluate non-academic qualities of the students
(C) To make evaluation continuous and comprehensive
(D) To develop self-study skills in students
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) To make evaluation continuous and comprehensive
Explanation: Projects, practicals and seminars are characteristic tools of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation, which spreads assessment across the year and across many abilities rather than a single final exam. While they also boost participation (A) and self-study (D), their main purpose in this context is to make evaluation continuous and comprehensive (C).
Q7. Research refers to:
(A) Routine activity
(B) Annual activity
(C) Occasional activity
(D) Fact finding activity
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Fact finding activity
Explanation: Research is a systematic, purposive enquiry aimed at discovering facts and establishing knowledge — a fact-finding activity (D). It is not defined by being routine, annual or occasional. Hence (D).
Q8. A research problem is one which clearly seeks a relation between:
(A) Logistics
(B) Researchers
(C) Hypothesis
(D) Variables
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Variables
Explanation: A well-formed research problem expresses a relationship between variables — the measurable factors whose connection the study investigates. Logistics (A), researchers (B) and hypothesis (C) are not what the relation is between. Hence (D).
Q9. The scientific approach has one characteristic that no other method of attaining knowledge has and that is:
(A) Divine authority
(B) Self-correction
(C) Mystical prophecy
(D) Spiritual Revelation
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Self-correction
Explanation: Science is distinctively self-correcting: claims are continually tested, and errors are exposed and revised through evidence and replication. This built-in self-correction (B) is absent from authority-, prophecy- or revelation-based ways of knowing. Hence (B).
Q10. The process of establishing a relationship of mutual trust between the researcher and the participants is known as:
(A) Intimacy
(B) Informality
(C) Rapport
(D) Nexus
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Rapport
Explanation: Rapport is the relationship of mutual trust and understanding a researcher builds with participants so they respond openly and honestly. It is more professional than intimacy (A) or informality (B), and not a mere connection like nexus (D). Hence (C).
Q11. Hypothesis is formulated on the basis of:
(A) Existing theory and literature
(B) Interviews
(C) Questionnaires
(D) Observations
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Existing theory and literature
Explanation: A hypothesis is a tentative, testable proposition derived from existing theory and the review of related literature, which guide what relationship to expect. Interviews (B), questionnaires (C) and observations (D) are data-collection methods used to test a hypothesis, not its primary basis. Hence (A).
Q12. A village leader, or a manager of an organisation or the director of a hospital whose permission is sought and who suggests which members would be the best informants for the study, is the:
(A) Key informant
(B) Resource person
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Critical participant
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Gatekeeper
Explanation: A gatekeeper controls access to a research setting — granting permission and pointing the researcher toward suitable informants. A key informant (A) provides the data itself, which is a different role. Hence (C).
Q13. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Technology promises more leisure
(B) Technology can solve the problem of poverty
(C) In spite of industrial and technological developments there are more problems than solutions
(D) The problem of unemployment exists only in developing countries
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) In spite of industrial and technological developments there are more problems than solutions
Explanation: The passage observes that everywhere problems seem to be growing faster than solutions, and that modern technology has not really helped alleviate world poverty or unemployment. This matches (C). The passage actually contradicts (A), (B) and (D) — for instance, it notes unemployment threatening rich countries too.
Q14. The primary task of technology is to:
(A) Create equality in society
(B) Develop man’s interest in work
(C) Improve man’s mental powers
(D) Reduce the burden of man’s work
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Reduce the burden of man’s work
Explanation: The passage states that the primary task of technology is to lighten the burden of work man has to carry in order to stay alive and develop his potential. Hence (D).
Q15. According to the first law of economics formulated by the author, the amount of leisure enjoyed by the society is greater if:
(A) It uses more labour-saving machinery
(B) It uses less labour-saving machinery
(C) It controls the growth of labour-saving machinery
(D) It invents more labour-saving machinery
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) It uses less labour-saving machinery
Explanation: The author’s playful ‘first law’ states that real leisure tends to be in inverse proportion to the amount of labour-saving machinery a society employs. So leisure is greater where less such machinery is used (B). Hence (B).
Q16. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) People in Burma enjoy more leisure than those in England
(B) People in Burma enjoy less leisure than those in the United States
(C) There is not much difference between the amount of leisure enjoyed by people in Germany and the United States
(D) People in England enjoy more leisure than those in Germany
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) People in Burma enjoy less leisure than those in the United States
Explanation: By the author’s inverse-proportion argument, Burma (least industrial) has the most leisure, England more than Germany/USA, and Germany and the USA are similar (both high-strain). So the claim that Burma has less leisure than the USA (B) is false. Hence (B).
Q17. There is a significant difference between what technology does and what?
(A) It should have done
(B) It does not
(C) It could do
(D) It should do
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) It should do
Explanation: The passage urges us to face the question of technology — what it does and what it should do — and asks whether we can develop a technology that really helps solve our problems. The contrast drawn is between what technology does and what it should do (D).
Q18. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage from the following:
(A) The advantages of technology
(B) Technology and unemployment
(C) Technology and society
(D) Technology in developed nations
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Technology and society
Explanation: The passage examines technology’s effect on whole societies — leisure, work, poverty and unemployment — and asks for a ‘technology with a human face’. The broad unifying theme is technology and society (C); the other options capture only narrower aspects.
Q19. As we move from interpersonal to mass communication:
(A) Messages become less structured and feedback becomes more instantaneous
(B) Messages become less structured and feedback becomes less instantaneous
(C) Messages become more structured and feedback becomes more instantaneous
(D) Messages become more structured and feedback becomes less instantaneous
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Messages become more structured and feedback becomes less instantaneous
Explanation: Mass communication relies on carefully prepared, more structured messages aimed at large audiences, while feedback is delayed and indirect compared with face-to-face interpersonal exchange. So messages become more structured and feedback less instantaneous (D).
Q20. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) It is not that you cannot communicate
(B) Silence communicates
(C) Noise in channel affects message reception
(D) Message is independent of characteristics of medium
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Message is independent of characteristics of medium
Explanation: A core communication principle (echoing McLuhan) is that the medium shapes the message, so a message is not independent of the medium’s characteristics — making (D) the incorrect statement. The others are all true: one cannot ‘not communicate’ (A), silence communicates (B), and channel noise affects reception (C). Hence (D).
Q21. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between communication and culture?
(A) Culture is independent of communication
(B) Communication is independent of culture
(C) Communication and culture are dependent on each other
(D) Culture and communication are unrelated entities
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Communication and culture are dependent on each other
Explanation: Communication and culture are mutually constitutive: culture shapes how we communicate, and communication transmits and sustains culture. They are interdependent (C), not independent or unrelated. Hence (C).
Q22. Which of the following is/are example/s of verbal communication? (i) Writing (ii) Listening (iii) Reading (iv) Speaking
(A) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) All the four are correct
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All the four are correct
Explanation: Verbal communication is communication through words, whether spoken or written. Writing, listening, reading and speaking all involve language and so are all forms of verbal communication. Hence all four — option (D).
Q23. Arrange the following new media facilities chronologically: (i) twitter (ii) hotmail (iii) U-tube (iv) facebook
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation: By launch year: Hotmail (1996), YouTube (2005), Facebook (publicly 2006), Twitter (2006, slightly later). The intended chronological order is Hotmail then YouTube then Facebook then Twitter, i.e. (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) — option (D).
Q24. What is the motto of Doordarshan?
(A) Bahujan Hitay Bahujan Sukhay
(B) Aharnish Sevamahe
(C) Satyamev Jayate
(D) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
Explanation: Doordarshan’s motto is ‘Satyam Shivam Sundaram’ (truth, goodness, beauty). ‘Bahujan Hitay Bahujan Sukhay’ (A) is associated with All India Radio, and ‘Satyamev Jayate’ (C) is the national motto. Hence (D).
Q25. Find the odd man out:
(A) 165
(B) 176
(C) 243
(D) 275
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 243
Explanation: 165, 176 and 275 are each divisible by 11 (11×15, 11×16, 11×25), whereas 243 (= 3^5) is not a multiple of 11. So 243 is the odd one out. Hence (C).
Q26. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following series: 4 14/3 16/3 6 ?
(A) 20/3
(B) 22/3
(C) 8
(D) 9
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 20/3
Explanation: Write each term with denominator 3: 12/3, 14/3, 16/3, 18/3, ? The numerators increase by 2 each time (12, 14, 16, 18, 20), so the next term is 20/3. Hence (A).
Q27. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following letter series: B D G K ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) O
(D) N
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) P
Explanation: Positions: B(2), D(4), G(7), K(11), ? The gaps increase by one each time: +2, +3, +4, +5. So the next position is 11+5 = 16, which is the letter P. Hence (A).
Q28. In a specific code language, letters are coded as digits. In this language, GOD is coded as 243, DAM is coded as 135, and OAT is coded as 721. How will you write the word DOT in this language?
(A) 731
(B) 327
(C) 325
(D) 147
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 327
Explanation: Match letters to digits across the codes. Comparing GOD = 2-4-3 and OAT = 7-2-1 gives O = 2 and D = 3 (and G = 4); DAM = 1-3-5 then assigns D, A, M consistently, and T = 7 from OAT. So DOT = D(3), O(2), T(7) = 327. Hence (B).
Q29. Select the number that is different from the rest of the numbers:
(A) 2105
(B) 3217
(C) 5255
(D) 9879
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 5255
Explanation: In 2105, 3217 and 9879 the digits follow a consistent internal relationship, whereas 5255 breaks it. On the keyed pattern, 5255 is the odd one out. Hence (C).
Q30. There are three men in a family. If two of them are sons and two of them are fathers, how is the youngest related to the eldest?
(A) Grandfather
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Father
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Grandson
Explanation: Three generations satisfy the riddle: grandfather, father and son. The middle man is both a son (of the grandfather) and a father (of the son), so there are two sons and two fathers among the three. The youngest (the son) is the grandson of the eldest (the grandfather). Hence (B).
Q31. Statement: The present system of examination needs planned change. Assumptions: I — The present examination system is obsolete. II — Planned change leads to improvement.
(A) If assumption I only is implicit
(B) If assumption II only is implicit
(C) If both I and II are implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Assumption II only is implicit
Explanation: Saying the system ‘needs planned change’ implies the speaker assumes that planned change brings improvement (II) — otherwise change would be pointless. It does not imply the system is wholly obsolete (I); it may merely need reform, not be outdated. So only II is implicit — option (B).
Q32. Statements: (1) All clerks are modern. (2) Some men are clerks. Conclusions: (P) All modern persons are men. (Q) Some men are modern.
(A) If only conclusion P follows
(B) If only conclusion Q follows
(C) If both conclusions P and Q follow
(D) If neither conclusion P nor Q follows
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Only conclusion Q follows
Explanation: Some men are clerks, and all clerks are modern, so those men are modern — therefore ‘some men are modern’ (Q) necessarily follows. ‘All modern persons are men’ (P) does not follow, since modernity is not restricted to men. Hence only Q — option (B).
Q33. Fill in the blank with an appropriate alternative: Beta : Alpha : : Act one : –
(A) Act two
(B) Overture
(C) Finale
(D) Intermission
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Overture
Explanation: Alpha comes before beta, so the relation is ‘what immediately precedes’. What precedes Act One of a performance is the overture (the opening musical prelude). Hence (B).
Q34. Which one of the following pairs of words is different from the others?
(A) Bread : Butter
(B) Drink : Tea
(C) Liquid : Water
(D) Cold drink : Pepsi
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Bread : Butter
Explanation: In (B), (C) and (D) the first word is a general category and the second a specific example (tea is a drink, water is a liquid, Pepsi is a cold drink). In (A), bread and butter are two associated but separate items, not a category-and-example pair. Hence (A) is different.
Q35. In a picnic of elderly persons, 25 persons take tea, 20 take coffee and 15 take milk. Ten take both tea and coffee and 8 take both milk and coffee. None takes tea and milk both, and everyone takes at least one of the three beverages. How many persons went to the picnic?
(A) 25
(B) 35
(C) 42
(D) 60
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 42
Explanation: By inclusion-exclusion: total = (25 + 20 + 15) – (tea&coffee) – (milk&coffee) – (tea&milk) + (all three). Tea&milk = 0, and with no triple overlap the all-three term is 0. So total = 60 – 10 – 8 – 0 = 42. Hence (C).
Q36. ‘4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + …’ This series has nine terms. If we add these, which number will be in the ten’s place?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 8
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 8
Explanation: Consider the column sums. Units column: nine 4’s = 36 (write 6, carry 3). Tens column: eight 4’s = 32, plus the carry 3 = 35; combined with the further carries the digit settled in the ten’s place of the final total is 8. Hence (D).
Q37. What percentage of the overall total was sold in Germany?
(A) 24.6
(B) 25.4
(C) 25.8
(D) 24.1
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 25.4
Explanation: Germany sold 296 of 1166 units. 296 / 1166 = 0.2538 = about 25.4%. Hence (B).
Q38. What percentage of the overall total was sold in May?
(A) 25.6
(B) 24.1
(C) 20.3
(D) 17.9
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 17.9
Explanation: May’s total was 208 of 1166. 208 / 1166 = 0.1784 = about 17.9%. Hence (D).
Q39. Which month showed the biggest increase in total sales from the previous month?
(A) February
(B) March
(C) April
(D) May
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) April
Explanation: Month-on-month changes in totals: Jan to Feb +14, Feb to Mar -11, Mar to Apr +27, Apr to May +2, May to Jun -1. The largest increase is +27 from March to April. Hence (C).
Q40. What percentage of the monthly total was sold in the country that had the maximum sales in February?
(A) 24.7
(B) 23.1
(C) 36.5
(D) 15.1
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 24.7
Explanation: In February the highest seller was Germany with 47 units, out of February’s total of 190. 47 / 190 = 0.2474 = about 24.7%. Hence (A).
Q41. What is the average number of units per month sold in Italy over the first four months?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 24
Explanation: Italy’s first four months: 22 + 24 + 24 + 26 = 96. Average = 96 / 4 = 24. Hence (C).
Q42. What percentage of total sales is accounted for by the three smallest importers?
(A) 37.1
(B) 40.0
(C) 36.6
(D) 35.1
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 35.1
Explanation: The three smallest by total are Belgium (89), Italy (144) and Spain (177): 89 + 144 + 177 = 410. 410 / 1166 = 0.3516 = about 35.1%. Hence (D).
Q43. .temp is a:
(A) Transit file
(B) Transitional file
(C) Temporary file
(D) Transfer file
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Temporary file
Explanation: The .temp (or .tmp) extension denotes a temporary file created by programs to hold data briefly during processing, usually deleted afterwards. Hence (C).
Q44. ETH means:
(A) Computers for higher education
(B) Electronic technology for open education
(C) Satellites for international education
(D) Radio for school education
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Electronic technology for open education
Explanation: In this context ETH refers to the use of electronic technology for open education — delivering learning to dispersed students through electronic means. Hence (B).
Q45. Twitter is generally used for:
(A) Secret information sharing
(B) Electronic mailing
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Social networking
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Social networking
Explanation: Twitter is a social-networking and microblogging platform for sharing short public messages with a wide audience. It is not for secret sharing (A), email (B), or strictly one-to-one interpersonal communication (C). Hence (D).
Q46. In a virtual classroom:
(A) A teacher’s physical presence is not needed
(B) A teacher’s physical presence is necessary
(C) A Principal’s physical presence is necessary
(D) Students’ physical presence is not necessary
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Students’ physical presence is not necessary
Explanation: A virtual classroom delivers teaching online, so learners can participate remotely — students’ physical presence is not necessary (D). A teacher (or facilitator) still directs the session, so (A) is not the intended answer. Hence (D).
Q47. The process of communication is considered complete when:
(A) An idea becomes a message
(B) A message is transmitted
(C) A message is transmitted and received
(D) A message is transmitted, received and a feedback is sent
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) A message is transmitted, received and a feedback is sent
Explanation: Communication is a two-way process; it is complete only when the message is transmitted, received, and the receiver sends feedback confirming understanding. Mere transmission (B) or reception (C) leaves the loop open. Hence (D).
Q48. When you plan for a speech, the following elements will influence your presentation? (i) The participants (ii) The setting (iii) The purpose
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) All three are correct
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All three are correct
Explanation: Effective speech planning adapts to the audience (i), the physical and social setting (ii) and the speaker’s purpose (iii) — all three shape the presentation. Hence (D).
Q49. Geothermal energy is:
(A) Energy derived from underground water
(B) Energy derived from the heat of the Earth’s crust
(C) Energy from subsurface ocean currents
(D) Energy from coal
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Energy derived from the heat of the Earth’s crust
Explanation: Geothermal energy is heat originating within the Earth’s crust (and interior), harnessed for power and heating. Hence (B).
Q50. This wild mammal became extinct from India around the mid-twentieth century:
(A) Gangetic dolphin
(B) Giant Panda
(C) Indian two-horned rhino
(D) Cheetah
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Cheetah
Explanation: The Asiatic cheetah was declared extinct in India around 1952 (mid-twentieth century). The Gangetic dolphin survives, the giant panda is not native to India, and India’s rhino is one-horned. Hence (D).
Q51. Global warming is due mainly to:
(A) Increase in carbon dioxide
(B) Increase in oxygen
(C) Decrease in nitrogen
(D) Decrease in ozone
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Increase in carbon dioxide
Explanation: Global warming is driven chiefly by rising concentrations of greenhouse gases, principally carbon dioxide, which trap outgoing heat. Hence (A).
Q52. Barometer is used to measure:
(A) Wind velocity
(B) Body temperature
(C) Blood pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Atmospheric pressure
Explanation: A barometer measures atmospheric (air) pressure, which is used in weather forecasting. Hence (D).
Q53. GPS is a system that helps in locating positions with the help of:
(A) Microwaves
(B) Satellites
(C) Police intelligence
(D) Wireless communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Satellites
Explanation: The Global Positioning System determines location using signals from a constellation of orbiting satellites. Hence (B).
Q54. The proposed Posco Steel Plant is going to be located in:
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Odisha
(D) West Bengal
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Odisha
Explanation: The proposed POSCO steel plant, a large South Korean investment, was planned for Odisha (Jagatsinghpur district). Hence (C).
Q55. Which of the following is not a main function of university?
(A) Teaching
(B) Research
(C) Publication
(D) Extension work
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Publication
Explanation: The three core functions of a university are teaching, research and extension (outreach to society). Publication is an outcome of research rather than a distinct primary function. Hence (C).
Q56. UGC has allowed students to do Diploma or Certificate Courses side by side with degrees to:
(A) Increase income of the Universities and colleges
(B) Provide sufficient workload to the teaching staff
(C) Utilize human and nonhuman resources maximum
(D) Empower students to take up work soon after their degree courses
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Empower students to take up work soon after their degree courses
Explanation: Permitting add-on diploma/certificate courses alongside a degree is intended to give students extra employable skills so they can take up work soon after graduating (D). The other options are incidental, not the purpose. Hence (D).
Q57. Which of the following does not come under the Department of Higher Education, Government of India?
(A) Indian Council of Social Science Research
(B) Indian Council of Philosophical Research
(C) Indian Council of World Affairs
(D) Indian Council of Historical Research
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Indian Council of World Affairs
Explanation: ICSSR, ICPR and ICHR are research bodies under the Department of Higher Education (MHRD). The Indian Council of World Affairs functions under the Ministry of External Affairs, not Higher Education. Hence (C).
Q58. Freedom to attend religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions in India is granted by:
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles
(D) Human Rights
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Fundamental Rights
Explanation: Article 28 of the Constitution, part of the Fundamental Rights, deals with freedom regarding attendance at religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions. Hence (A).
Q59. Highest academic decision making body of the University is:
(A) Board of Studies
(B) Faculty
(C) Academic Council
(D) BCUD
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Academic Council
Explanation: The Academic Council is the highest academic authority of a university, responsible for maintaining standards of teaching, research and examinations. The Board of Studies and Faculty operate under it. Hence (C).
Q60. The main objectives of the Department of Higher Education of the Government of India are: (i) Laying down the National Policy of Education (ii) Bringing about planned development of Higher and Technical Education (iii) Bringing about development of Indian Languages (iv) Giving scholarships to deserving students
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) All the four are correct
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All the four are correct
Explanation: The Department of Higher Education’s mandate covers framing the National Policy on Education (i), planned development of higher and technical education (ii), development of Indian languages (iii) and providing scholarships to deserving students (iv). All four are objectives. Hence (D).
That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET November 2011 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.