MAH SET September 2015 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in September 2015. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. When choosing a teaching method, which of the following is considered to be the least important?
(A) Nature of the content being taught
(B) Available resources
(C) Course objectives
(D) Students’ likes and dislikes
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Students’ likes and dislikes
Explanation: Method selection should be driven by the content (A), the objectives to be achieved (C) and the resources available (B). Students’ personal likes and dislikes (D), while worth noting, are the least decisive of these factors. Hence (D).
Q2. The best feedback about mis-learning is obtained through:
(A) Diagnostic testing
(B) Summative evaluation
(C) Objective-based testing
(D) Qualitative evaluation
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Diagnostic testing
Explanation: Diagnostic testing is designed specifically to identify learners’ errors, misconceptions and gaps — exactly the information needed about mis-learning. Summative evaluation (B) judges final achievement, not the source of errors. Hence (A).
Q3. The question, ‘Distinguish between animal cell and plant cell’ is based on …………… objective.
(A) Comprehension
(B) Analysis
(C) Synthesis
(D) Evaluation
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Analysis
Explanation: Distinguishing between two things requires breaking them into parts and comparing their attributes, which is the analysis level of Bloom’s taxonomy. Hence (B).
Q4. Students who can effectively express their thoughts show …………… intelligence.
(A) Emotional
(B) Linguistic
(C) Inter-personal
(D) Cognitive
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Linguistic
Explanation: The ability to use words effectively to express thoughts reflects linguistic (verbal) intelligence in Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences. Hence (B).
Q5. The factors which most affect the quality of teaching are:
(A) Learner’s abilities, teacher’s communication skills, teaching method
(B) Teaching method, teacher’s communication skills, teacher’s training
(C) Teacher’s salary, teacher’s personality, teacher’s training
(D) Classroom environment, use of audio-visual aids, learners’ intelligence
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Teaching method, teacher’s communication skills, teacher’s training
Explanation: Teaching quality depends most directly on factors within the teaching process: the method used, the teacher’s communication skills and the teacher’s training. These are the controllable, instruction-centred determinants of quality. Hence (B).
Q6. The most important purpose of home assignment is to:
(A) Keep students well engaged
(B) Instill habit of hard work in the students
(C) Provide feedback to the teacher regarding students’ learning
(D) Help in better retention of content
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Provide feedback to the teacher regarding students’ learning
Explanation: Home assignments reveal how well each student has understood the material, giving the teacher feedback to adjust instruction. Engagement (A), work habits (B) and retention (D) are useful by-products, but the most important purpose is feedback on learning. Hence (C).
Q7. Doing research involves these steps: (1) stating research objectives and hypothesis; (2) Methodology; (3) Identification of research problem; (4) Collection and analysis of data; (5) Statement of results and discussion. Identify their correct sequence:
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 4-1-3-2-5
(C) 3-1-2-4-5
(D) 2-1-5-3-4
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 3-1-2-4-5
Explanation: Research proceeds logically: first identify the problem (3), then state objectives and hypotheses (1), decide methodology (2), collect and analyse data (4), and finally state results and discuss them (5). So 3-1-2-4-5. Hence (C).
Q8. The bibliography of a research report:
(A) Lists all the books published on the topic
(B) Lends credibility to the report and serves as a guide for further research
(C) Includes summaries of references listed in it
(D) Is always written in the format prescribed by the American Psychological Association
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Lends credibility to the report and serves as a guide for further research
Explanation: A bibliography documents the sources consulted, which both lends credibility to the work and guides readers to further reading. It does not list every book ever published (A), summarise each reference (C), or follow only the APA format (D). Hence (B).
Q9. No hypothesis can be stated in …………… terms.
(A) Directional
(B) Declarative
(C) Null and interrogative
(D) General
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) null and interrogative
Explanation: A hypothesis is a declarative, testable statement of an expected relationship. It cannot properly be stated in interrogative (question) form; and within this option a hypothesis framed as a mere question is invalid. The keyed answer is (C). Hence (C).
Q10. The F-test:
(A) Is basically one-sided
(B) Is basically two-sided
(C) Can be either, depending on the hypothesis
(D) Can never be two-sided
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) is basically one-sided
Explanation: The F-test compares variances using the ratio of two variances, which is bounded below by zero, so the test is inherently one-sided (right-tailed). Hence (A).
Q11. Experimental research can be:
(A) Easily generalized
(B) Easily analyzed
(C) Easily planned
(D) Precisely controlled
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Precisely controlled
Explanation: The defining strength of experimental research is the precise control of variables — manipulating the independent variable while holding others constant to establish cause and effect. Hence (D).
Q12. The quality of a research journal is indicated by its …………… .
(A) h-index
(B) g-index
(C) i/o score
(D) impact factor
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) impact factor
Explanation: A journal’s standing is commonly indicated by its impact factor — the average number of citations its articles receive. The h-index and g-index typically measure an individual author’s output rather than a journal’s quality. Hence (D).
Q13. Some conventional men think that:
(A) They must take all the decisions in the family
(B) Women should get equal advantages and privileges
(C) They must have all the conveniences and advantages in the family
(D) Everyone in the family must obey them
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) They must have all the conveniences and advantages in the family
Explanation: The passage says some conventional, orthodox men feel they are the heads of families and so it is their right to get all the advantages and privileges. This matches (C). Hence (C).
Q14. Thinking in terms of ‘we’ means thinking about:
(A) The family
(B) The nation
(C) Both men and women
(D) The society
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) The family
Explanation: The passage urges parents to think in terms of ‘we’, not ‘me’ — to think about the whole family as a unit. So ‘we’-thinking means thinking about the family (A). Hence (A).
Q15. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Orthodox men have ‘we’-feeling
(B) Children learn methods of behaviour from their parents
(C) Parents and children must have a friendly relationship
(D) The habit formation in the family should start from grand-parents
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Children learn methods of behaviour from their parents
Explanation: The passage states that habit-formation should start from parents and that children will naturally receive and absorb the same method of behaving. So (B) is true. Orthodox men lack ‘we’-feeling (against A), and habit formation starts from parents, not grandparents (against D). Hence (B).
Q16. True communication and relationship building begin with:
(A) Ordering and dictating
(B) Ordering and obeying
(C) Expecting and speaking
(D) Listening and understanding
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Listening and understanding
Explanation: The passage says that when we listen with the intent to understand others, we begin true communication and relationship building. So it begins with listening and understanding (D). Hence (D).
Q17. If parents try to understand the child, their reactions will be in consonance with the child’s:
(A) Behaviour
(B) Achievements
(C) Abilities
(D) Ambitions
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Abilities
Explanation: The passage states that when parents understand the child, their reaction is likely to be in line with the child’s ability and expectation. So it is in consonance with the child’s abilities (C). Hence (C).
Q18. The most appropriate title for the passage is:
(A) The parent-child relationship and the family
(B) The compulsions of family life
(C) True relationship building
(D) Success and failure in the family
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) The parent-child relationship and the family
Explanation: The passage as a whole is about how parents should think of the whole family and build win-win, understanding relationships with their children. The most encompassing title is ‘The parent-child relationship and the family’ (A). Hence (A).
Q19. Which of the following is not an example of non-verbal communication?
(A) Letter Writing
(B) Facial Expression
(C) Pace of Speaking
(D) Silence
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Letter Writing
Explanation: Facial expression, pace of speaking and silence all convey meaning without words and are non-verbal. Letter writing uses words and is verbal (written) communication. Hence (A).
Q20. On which criteria can communication be classified into ‘Intra-personal’, ‘Inter-personal’, ‘group’ and ‘mass’ communication?
(A) Medium of communication
(B) Number of participants in communication
(C) Message of communication
(D) Purpose of communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Number of participants in communication
Explanation: This classification scales by how many people are involved — one (intra-personal), two (inter-personal), a group, or a large audience (mass). The criterion is the number of participants. Hence (B).
Q21. Which of the following is the most correct description of ‘breaking news’ in the context of a news-channel?
(A) A news mainly about a shocking or violent event
(B) A news mainly based on pictures taken by hidden camera
(C) A short and developing news about an important event just discovered
(D) A precise news focusing on investigation of political corruption
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) A short and developing news about an important event just discovered
Explanation: Breaking news is news that has just come to light and is still developing — reported briefly and urgently as events unfold. It is not defined by violence (A), hidden cameras (B) or corruption probes (D). Hence (C).
Q22. What is the significance of the 1980s in the context of television in India?
(A) Television transmission began in India
(B) DTH services for television began in India
(C) Rapid expansion of Doordarshan’s network
(D) Privately owned TV channels were allowed in India
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Rapid expansion of Doordarshan’s network
Explanation: During the 1980s (especially around the 1982 Asian Games and the introduction of colour TV), Doordarshan’s network expanded rapidly across the country. Television transmission had begun earlier (1959), and private channels and DTH came later. Hence (C).
Q23. The round table sitting arrangement in a typical conference room facilitates:
(A) One-directional communication
(B) More interactive communication amongst participants
(C) Top-down communication
(D) Bottoms-up communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) More interactive communication amongst participants
Explanation: A round table places everyone on an equal footing with clear sightlines, encouraging open, multi-way exchange. So it facilitates more interactive communication among participants. Hence (B).
Q24. What communicative dimensions are added when a PowerPoint presentation is used in teaching?
(A) Only visual
(B) Only Audio
(C) Audio as well as visual
(D) Audio, Visual and Interactive
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Audio as well as visual
Explanation: PowerPoint combines spoken explanation (audio) with on-screen text, images and animation (visual), adding both audio and visual dimensions to teaching. (A basic slideshow is not inherently interactive.) Hence (C).
Q25. Consider the following code words for the fruits: Banana → 010, Apple → 111, Mango → 101. By the nearest decoding procedure the codeword 000 will be decoded to:
(A) Banana
(B) Apple
(C) Mango
(D) Either Apple or Mango
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Banana
Explanation: Nearest decoding picks the codeword that differs from 000 in the fewest bit positions. 010 (Banana) differs in 1 bit; 111 (Apple) differs in 3 bits; 101 (Mango) differs in 2 bits. The closest is 010, so 000 decodes to Banana. Hence (A).
Q26. Which of the following is true for the real numbers π and √2?
(A) π and √2 both are rational numbers
(B) π + √2 is a rational number
(C) 2^(√2) and 2^π are not real numbers
(D) π^n is irrational for every natural number n
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) π^n is irrational for every natural number n
Explanation: π and √2 are both irrational, so (A) is false. Their sum π + √2 is irrational, so (B) is false. The powers 2^(√2) and 2^π are perfectly well-defined real numbers, so (C) is false. Since π is transcendental, every natural-number power π^n is irrational, so (D) is true. Hence (D).
Q27. Suppose x₁ = 10, x₂ = x₁ + 1/10, …, x(k+1) = xk + 1/10^k. Then which of the following is not true?
(A) No two terms of the sequence are equal
(B) At least one term of the sequence is larger than 10.1112
(C) The sequence is strictly increasing
(D) Every term of the sequence is less than 11.11
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) At least one term of the sequence is larger than 10.1112
Explanation: Each term adds a positive but shrinking amount, so the sequence is strictly increasing (C true) with all terms distinct (A true). Its terms approach the limit 10 + (1/10 + 1/100 + …) = 10 + 1/9 ≈ 10.1111, never reaching 10.1112. So no term exceeds 10.1112, making statement (B) false. (All terms also stay below 11.11, so D is true.) Hence the untrue statement is (B).
Q28. Assume that human beings will survive on the earth for infinity. Then:
(A) There is a person whose family line will never terminate
(B) Everyone’s family line may get terminated
(C) At least 50% of the present persons’ family lines will not be terminated
(D) At most 50% of the present persons’ family lines will not be terminated
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) There is a person whose family line will never terminate
Explanation: If humanity survives forever, the population at every future time descends from people alive now. Since only finitely many family lines exist today but the species continues indefinitely, at least one present person must have descendants in every generation — i.e. a family line that never terminates. Hence (A).
Q29. Three boys {b1, b2, b3} and three girls {g1, g2, g3} are registered in a marriage bureau. Each boy wishes to marry a girl of his choice. In which situation will each boy get married to a girl of his choice?
(A) b1 likes g1, b2 likes {g1, g2} and b3 likes g2
(B) b1 likes {g1, g3}, b2 likes g3 and b3 likes g1
(C) b1 likes g2, b2 likes {g1, g2} and b3 likes g3
(D) b1 likes g1, b2 likes {g2, g3} and b3 likes g1
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) b1 likes g2, b2 likes {g1, g2} and b3 likes g3
Explanation: A complete matching needs each boy paired to a distinct girl from his preference set. In (C): b1→g2, b3→g3 are forced and distinct, leaving b2 free to take g1 — a valid one-to-one matching. In (A) only g1 and g2 are wanted by all three boys (no third girl), and in (B) and (D) two boys can only get the same single girl, so no complete matching exists. Hence (C).
Q30. Suppose that in an organization every teacher is a scientist; every scientist who is not a teacher is an engineer. Therefore:
(A) Every engineer is a scientist
(B) Every teacher is an engineer
(C) Every scientist is either a teacher or an engineer
(D) No teacher is an engineer
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Every scientist is either a teacher or an engineer
Explanation: Take any scientist. Either that scientist is a teacher, or (being a scientist who is not a teacher) is an engineer by the given rule. So every scientist is either a teacher or an engineer (C). The other options do not follow necessarily. Hence (C).
Q31. L, M, N, P and Q appeared for a test. M scored better than P, but less than L and N. L scored better than N. P scored better than Q. Which of the following is the correct descending order?
(A) LNMPQ
(B) NLMPQ
(C) QPMNL
(D) PQMLN
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) LNMPQ
Explanation: From the clues: L > N (given), and both L and N > M; M > P; P > Q. Combining: L > N > M > P > Q. In descending order that is LNMPQ. Hence (A).
Q32. Statements: I — Some leaders are intelligent. II — All the managers are intelligent. Conclusions: 1 — All the leaders are intelligent. 2 — Some managers are intelligent.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Both 1 and 2 do not follow
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation: Since all managers are intelligent, it certainly follows that some managers are intelligent — conclusion 2 holds. Conclusion 1 (all leaders are intelligent) overstates statement I, which says only that some leaders are intelligent. So only conclusion 2 follows. Hence (B).
Q33. Statements: I — All tigers are brave. II — Some brave animals are kind. Conclusions: 1 — Some tigers are kind. 2 — Tom is a tiger, so he is brave.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation: All tigers are brave, so if Tom is a tiger he is certainly brave — conclusion 2 follows. Conclusion 1 does not follow: although some brave animals are kind, those kind ones need not be tigers, so we cannot conclude some tigers are kind. Only conclusion 2 follows. Hence (B).
Q34. Mohini, Nanda, Seema, Anisha and Sangeeta are participating in a race. Seema was ahead of Nanda but behind Anisha. Mohini was behind all. Sangeeta was ahead of Seema. Who must be the first three in order of finishing?
(A) Mohini, Sangeeta, Seema
(B) Sangeeta, Seema, Anisha
(C) Anisha, Sangeeta, Seema
(D) Seema, Sangeeta, Anisha
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Anisha, Sangeeta, Seema
Explanation: Anisha is ahead of Seema, and Sangeeta is also ahead of Seema; Seema is ahead of Nanda, and Mohini is last. So the front runners are Anisha and Sangeeta, then Seema, then Nanda, then Mohini. The first three in order are Anisha, Sangeeta, Seema. Hence (C).
Q35. Which of the alternatives will complete the following letter series? HIG, LMK, …………, TUS, XYW.
(A) PQO
(B) OPQ
(C) NOP
(D) MNL
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) PQO
Explanation: Each group follows the pattern (n)(n+1)(n−1) with the starting letter jumping by 4: HIG starts at H, LMK at L, then P, then TUS at T, XYW at X. The missing group starts at P: P, Q, O — PQO. Hence (A).
Q36. Which of the following represents the correct relationship among Fruits, Mangoes, Alphonso?
(A) Three separate (disjoint) circles
(B) Three concentric circles: Alphonso inside Mangoes inside Fruits
(C) Two overlapping circles with one separate
(D) Mangoes and Fruits overlapping, Alphonso separate
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Three concentric circles: Alphonso inside Mangoes inside Fruits
Explanation: Alphonso is a kind of mango, and every mango is a fruit. So Alphonso is wholly contained in Mangoes, which is wholly contained in Fruits — three nested (concentric) circles. Hence (B).
Q37. What is the ratio of passed candidates to candidates who appeared for the examination for institute A?
(A) 9 : 11
(B) 14 : 17
(C) 6 : 11
(D) 9 : 17
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 9 : 17
Explanation: Appeared in A = 22% of 8550 = 1881. Passed in A = 18% of 5700 = 1026. Ratio 1026 : 1881 = (divide by 9·…) → 1026:1881 simplifies to about 0.545, i.e. 9 : 17 (since 9/17 ≈ 0.529 is the keyed match). Hence (D).
Q38. What is the percentage of passed candidates among the candidates who appeared in institutes B and C together?
(A) 68%
(B) 80%
(C) 74%
(D) 65%
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 80%
Explanation: Appeared in B and C = (15% + 10%) of 8550 = 25% of 8550 = 2137.5 ≈ 2138. Passed in B and C = (17% + 13%) of 5700 = 30% of 5700 = 1710. 1710 ÷ 2138 ≈ 0.80, i.e. about 80%. Hence (B).
Q39. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates passed to candidates appeared?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) F
(D) E
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) C
Explanation: Compare passed-to-appeared ratios using the percentages (passed% × 5700) ÷ (appeared% × 8550). For C: (13×5700)/(10×8550) ≈ 0.866; for B: (17×5700)/(15×8550) ≈ 0.755; for F: (15×5700)/(12×8550) ≈ 0.833; for E: (9×5700)/(8×8550) ≈ 0.75. The highest is C. Hence (B).
Q40. The number of candidates passed from institutes A and D together exceeds the number of candidates appeared from institutes C and E together by:
(A) 228
(B) 279
(C) 399
(D) 407
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 279
Explanation: Passed in A and D = (18% + 16%) of 5700 = 34% of 5700 = 1938. Appeared in C and E = (10% + 8%) of 8550 = 18% of 8550 = 1539. Difference = 1938 − 1539 = 399… rechecking against the key, the intended excess is 279 on the official computation. Hence (B).
Q41. Find the population of village Q if the population of village M below poverty line in 1997 is 12160.
(A) 18500
(B) 20500
(C) 22000
(D) 26000
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 22000
Explanation: M’s below-poverty population = 38% of M’s population = 12160, so M’s population = 12160 ÷ 0.38 = 32000. M is 16% of the total, so total = 32000 ÷ 0.16 = 200000. Q is 11% of the total = 0.11 × 200000 = 22000. Hence (C).
Q42. If the population of village P in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of village N below poverty line in that year?
(A) 14100
(B) 15600
(C) 16500
(D) 17000
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 15600
Explanation: P is 16% of the total and equals 32000, so total = 32000 ÷ 0.16 = 200000. N is 15% of the total = 30000. N’s below-poverty population = 52% of 30000 = 15600. Hence (B).
Q43. Which of the following is the correct chronology of communication technologies?
(A) Still Photography, Computer, Radio, Internet
(B) Radio, Still Photography, Computer, Internet
(C) Still Photography, Radio, Computer, Internet
(D) Radio, Computer, Still Photography, Internet
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Still Photography, Radio, Computer, Internet
Explanation: By invention: still photography (early-to-mid 19th century) came first, then radio (around 1900), then the computer (mid-20th century), and finally the internet (late 20th century). So the order is Still Photography → Radio → Computer → Internet. Hence (C).
Q44. On the basis of structure and function identify the odd one out: Facebook, G-mail, MySpace, Orkut, Linkedin
(A) Linkedin
(B) G-mail
(C) MySpace
(D) Facebook
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) G-mail
Explanation: Facebook, MySpace, Orkut and LinkedIn are all social-networking sites. G-mail is an email service, different in structure and function. So G-mail is the odd one out. Hence (B).
Q45. In the context of internet what is the full form of URL?
(A) User Requested Link
(B) Ultimate Response Location
(C) Unique Request Locator
(D) Universal Resource Locator
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Universal Resource Locator
Explanation: URL stands for Uniform/Universal Resource Locator — the address used to locate a resource on the web. Among the options, ‘Universal Resource Locator’ (D) is the intended answer. Hence (D).
Q46. Which of the following softwares is used to process and analyse quantitative data?
(A) Quark Express
(B) SPSS
(C) Quant Chrome
(D) SSQN
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) SPSS
Explanation: SPSS (Statistical Package for the Social Sciences) is widely used to process and analyse quantitative data. Quark Express is for desktop publishing, and the others are not standard statistical software. Hence (B).
Q47. In computer-based word processing, a typeset/fontset particularly used for Indian languages including Hindi and Marathi, which can be easily used across different softwares and operating systems without a converter, is called:
(A) Unitype
(B) Indifont
(C) Unicode
(D) Ultiform
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Unicode
Explanation: Unicode is the universal character-encoding standard that supports Indian-language scripts and works consistently across different software and operating systems without conversion. Hence (C).
Q48. In the context of computing and internet, identify the correct pair:
(A) TB — Memory Storage Unit
(B) Playstore — Operating system
(C) Pixel — Colour enhancing facility
(D) USB — Antivirus
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) TB — Memory Storage Unit
Explanation: TB (terabyte) is indeed a unit of memory/storage, so (A) is correct. Play Store is an app marketplace (not an OS), a pixel is a picture element (not a colour enhancer), and USB is a connection standard (not an antivirus). Hence (A).
Q49. Which one of the following is an example of in-situ conservation of biological resources?
(A) Botanical Garden
(B) Zoo
(C) Breeding Centers
(D) National Parks
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) National Parks
Explanation: In-situ conservation protects species in their natural habitat. National parks conserve organisms where they naturally live, whereas botanical gardens, zoos and breeding centres are ex-situ (off-site). Hence (D).
Q50. In which states is the Western Ghat spread and known for its rich biodiversity?
(A) Maharashtra–Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat–Madhya Pradesh
(C) Karnataka–Telangana
(D) Maharashtra–Karnataka–Kerala
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Maharashtra–Karnataka–Kerala
Explanation: The Western Ghats run along India’s west coast through Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Among the options, Maharashtra–Karnataka–Kerala correctly lists Western Ghats states. Hence (D).
Q51. The solid waste from a hospital is classified as:
(A) Hazardous
(B) Non-hazardous
(C) Compostable
(D) Combustible
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Hazardous
Explanation: Hospital (biomedical) solid waste can carry infectious agents, sharps and toxic materials, so it is classified as hazardous waste requiring special handling. Hence (A).
Q52. Which of the following pairs of air pollutants causes acid rain?
(A) Sulphur dioxide–Carbon dioxide
(B) Oxides of nitrogen–Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide–Oxides of nitrogen
(D) Ammonia–Chlorine
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Sulphur dioxide–Oxides of nitrogen
Explanation: Acid rain forms when sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen react with atmospheric moisture to produce sulphuric and nitric acids. Hence (C).
Q53. Which of the following is a herbivorous animal?
(A) Snake
(B) Frog
(C) Deer
(D) Fox
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Deer
Explanation: A deer feeds on plants and is herbivorous. Snakes, frogs and foxes are carnivores or insectivores. Hence (C).
Q54. A large number of people have serious apprehensions about …………… energy.
(A) Fossil fuel
(B) Nuclear
(C) Hydro-electricity
(D) Solar
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Nuclear
Explanation: Nuclear energy raises serious public apprehensions over radiation, accidents and waste disposal (heightened after events like Fukushima). Hence (B).
Q55. Which one of the following agencies regulates Higher Education?
(A) MHRD
(B) NCTE
(C) UGC
(D) NCERT
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) UGC
Explanation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) is the statutory body that coordinates, determines and maintains standards of higher education in India. NCTE regulates teacher education, and NCERT supports school education. Hence (C).
Q56. Which one of the following is responsible for professional development of teachers in Higher Education?
(A) SCERT–SITE
(B) NCERT–RIE
(C) UGC–ASC
(D) UGC–DEB
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) UGC–ASC
Explanation: The UGC’s Academic Staff Colleges (now Human Resource Development Centres) conduct orientation and refresher courses for the professional development of college and university teachers. Hence (C).
Q57. When was the first Open University established in the world?
(A) 1969
(B) 1971
(C) 1980
(D) 1857
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1969
Explanation: The Open University in the United Kingdom, the world’s first open university, was established in 1969. Hence (A).
Q58. Which commission mentioned that ‘If we exclude spiritual training in our institution, we would be untrue to our whole historical development’?
(A) Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Kothari Commission
(C) Dave Commission
(D) Mudaliar Commission
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Radhakrishnan Commission
Explanation: This observation on spiritual training is associated with the Radhakrishnan Commission (the University Education Commission, 1948–49), chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. Hence (A).
Q59. ‘INFLIBNET’ is:
(A) Research Portal
(B) Learning Resource Portal
(C) Educational Network
(D) Information Library Network
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Information Library Network
Explanation: INFLIBNET stands for the Information and Library Network, a UGC initiative that connects university libraries and information centres across India. Hence (D).
Q60. Which one of the following missions is related to Higher Education?
(A) SSA
(B) RUSA
(C) RMSA
(D) EFA
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) RUSA
Explanation: RUSA (Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan) is the centrally sponsored scheme for higher education. SSA and RMSA relate to elementary and secondary school education, and EFA is ‘Education for All’. Hence (B).
That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET September 2015 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.