MAH SET April 2017 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in April 2017. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. The main objective of teaching is:
(A) to facilitate learning
(B) to give information about unknown facts
(C) to use teaching aids to simplify the content
(D) to form good learning habits in students
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) to facilitate learning
Explanation: In the modern view, teaching is essentially about facilitating learning — helping students understand, construct and apply knowledge. Giving information (B), using aids (C) and building habits (D) are means that serve this larger objective. Hence (A).
Q2. Academic learning time does not depend upon …………… .
(A) content
(B) difficulty level of content
(C) time spent for learning
(D) students’ attitude towards learning
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) content
Explanation: Academic learning time is the portion of instructional time during which students are actively and successfully engaged. It is shaped by the difficulty of the content (B), the time devoted to learning (C) and the learners’ attitude (D), but not by the content itself as a topic. Hence (A).
Q3. …………… is an essential quality of the best teacher.
(A) Strong subject knowledge
(B) Genuine interest in teaching
(C) Language fluency
(D) Good presentation
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Genuine interest in teaching
Explanation: While subject knowledge, fluency and presentation all help, the indispensable quality of the best teacher is a genuine interest in teaching, which sustains effort, empathy and continual improvement. Hence (B).
Q4. In …………… method of teaching, teacher uses the maxim known as ‘specific to general’.
(A) Analytical
(B) Synthesis
(C) Inductive
(D) Deductive
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Inductive
Explanation: The inductive method moves from specific examples or observations to a general rule or principle — the maxim ‘specific to general’. The deductive method works the other way. Hence (C).
Q5. The selection of teaching aid depends largely on the:
(A) age of students
(B) interest of students
(C) age and motivation of students
(D) educational level and age of students
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) educational level and age of students
Explanation: An appropriate teaching aid must suit both the learners’ developmental stage (age) and their educational level, so that it matches their comprehension. Hence (D).
Q6. Ms. Sindhu conducts a question-answer session in her class to determine the abilities of students at the beginning of an academic year. This is termed …………… assessment.
(A) formative
(B) summative
(C) diagnostic
(D) cumulative
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) diagnostic
Explanation: Assessing students’ existing abilities and weaknesses at the start, to plan instruction, is diagnostic assessment. Formative (A) occurs during learning, summative (B) at the end, and cumulative (D) aggregates over time. Hence (C).
Q7. …………… thinking enables us to write statements and develop arguments in a step-by-step coherent manner.
(A) Accurate
(B) Scientific
(C) Logical
(D) Clear
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Logical
Explanation: Logical thinking arranges ideas and arguments in an ordered, step-by-step, coherent way, with each statement following from the last. Hence (C).
Q8. One of the following is a reference management software:
(A) EndNote
(B) Turnitin
(C) Copyscape
(D) Viper
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) EndNote
Explanation: EndNote is reference (citation) management software used to organise references and format bibliographies. Turnitin, Copyscape and Viper are plagiarism-detection tools. Hence (A).
Q9. The …………… of a research article is placed near its beginning.
(A) summary
(B) abstract
(C) synopsis
(D) preface
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) abstract
Explanation: An abstract is the brief overview placed at the very beginning of a research article, summarising its purpose, method, results and conclusions. Hence (B).
Q10. A proposal that may provisionally serve as the starting point for further research is known as a …………… hypothesis.
(A) one-sided
(B) inductive
(C) working
(D) non-directional
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) working
Explanation: A working hypothesis is a tentative proposition adopted provisionally as a starting point to guide further investigation, to be refined as evidence accumulates. Hence (C).
Q11. Research journals with a high …………… are commonly considered to be more important than those with lower ones.
(A) Eigen factor
(B) h-index
(C) impact factor
(D) i10 score
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) impact factor
Explanation: A journal’s importance is most commonly judged by its impact factor, the average citations its articles receive. The h-index and i10 score usually measure an individual researcher’s output. Hence (C).
Q12. …………… is a short-term, intensive course for a small group, emphasising problem solving or learning newer techniques.
(A) workshop
(B) seminar
(C) summer school
(D) refresher course
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) workshop
Explanation: A workshop is a short, intensive, hands-on session for a small group focused on solving problems or acquiring new techniques. Hence (A).
Q13. The fall of the Roman Empire in European history:
(A) is believed to be the decline in culture and society in Europe
(B) is marked a period of gradual change from belief to disbelief
(C) began in 1400 A.D.
(D) ushered in a sense of loss of hope among the people
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) is believed to be the decline in culture and society in Europe
Explanation: The passage states that many people believe that after the collapse of the Roman Empire, culture and society declined — which is why the Middle Ages is sometimes called the Dark Ages. So the fall is believed to mark a decline in culture and society (A). Hence (A).
Q14. The period from 400 to 1400 A.D. is known as:
(A) the modern period
(B) the medieval period
(C) the ancient period
(D) the period of unrest
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) the medieval period
Explanation: The passage identifies the years from about the 400s to 1400 A.D. as the Middle Ages, also known as the Medieval period. Hence (B).
Q15. The period of Middle Ages:
(A) marked the firm control of the king over his kingdom
(B) witnessed the emergence of many smaller kingdoms in Europe
(C) was the most passive period in European history
(D) gave impetus to the idea of central rulership
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) witnessed the emergence of many smaller kingdoms in Europe
Explanation: The passage says the Roman Empire was divided into many smaller kingdoms and most kings had little control, with hundreds of vassals becoming independent rulers. So the period saw the emergence of many smaller kingdoms (B). Hence (B).
Q16. In the Middle Ages, the provinces controlled by the prince, duke or count were known as:
(A) regions
(B) vassals
(C) states
(D) fiefs
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) fiefs
Explanation: The passage states that the territories of these vassal-rulers (princes, dukes, counts) were known as fiefs, ruled through feudalism. Hence (D).
Q17. In feudal system: (I) kings were protected by the vassals; and (II) the vassals were protected by the people.
(A) (I) is right and (II) is wrong
(B) Both (I) and (II) are right
(C) Both (I) and (II) are wrong
(D) (I) is wrong and (II) is right
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Both (I) and (II) are right
Explanation: The passage explains that the vassal promised to protect the king and fight in his army, and in turn gave part of his fief to people who promised to serve and protect him. So vassals protected kings (I) and people protected vassals (II) — both are right. Hence (B).
Q18. According to the passage, the main authority that kept the European Society together was:
(A) the feudal system
(B) the king
(C) the church
(D) the peasantry
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) the church
Explanation: The passage states that the Church was the main force that kept Europe together during the Middle Ages, taking over many functions of government after the Roman Empire collapsed. Hence (C).
Q19. In the context of Indian media, the entities represented by the abbreviations PCI, CBFC, NBA, ASCI are collectively called:
(A) media owners organisations
(B) set of media laws in the constitution
(C) media regulatory bodies
(D) audience measurement bodies
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) media regulatory bodies
Explanation: The Press Council of India, Central Board of Film Certification, News Broadcasters Association and Advertising Standards Council of India all regulate or set standards for different media, so collectively they are media regulatory bodies. Hence (C).
Q20. What is ‘Prasar Bharati’?
(A) a private company owning TV channels
(B) a telecom company owning a large mobile network
(C) an advertising and public relation wing of the central govt.
(D) an autonomous body for public radio and TV broadcasting
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) an autonomous body for public radio and TV broadcasting
Explanation: Prasar Bharati is India’s public service broadcaster, an autonomous statutory body that runs Doordarshan (TV) and All India Radio. Hence (D).
Q21. Which of the following is not a correct statement in the context of communication?
(A) Non-verbal communication predates verbal communication
(B) Non-verbal messages are culture and context independent
(C) Non-verbal clues may compliment as well as contradict verbal messages
(D) Non-verbal capacities are more innate in us than verbal
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Non-verbal messages are culture and context independent
Explanation: Non-verbal signals (gestures, expressions) actually vary greatly across cultures and contexts, so saying they are culture- and context-independent (B) is incorrect. The other statements are true. Hence (B).
Q22. The categorization of human communication into intrapersonal, interpersonal, group and mass communication is mainly based on the criteria of:
(A) technical medium involved in communication
(B) nature of messages exchanged in communication
(C) number of participants involved in communication
(D) effectiveness of communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) number of participants involved in communication
Explanation: This scale runs from one person to two to a group to a mass audience, defined by how many people take part. Hence (C).
Q23. Identify the correct pair from the following:
(A) Teaching in classroom — Group communication
(B) Evaluating answer-sheets — Non-verbal communication
(C) Teaching with PowerPoint — Mass communication
(D) Debating in classroom — Phatic communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Teaching in classroom — Group communication
Explanation: Classroom teaching addresses a defined group of learners, so it is group communication — a correct pair. Evaluating answer sheets is not non-verbal communication, PowerPoint teaching is not mass communication, and classroom debate is not merely phatic (small talk). Hence (A).
Q24. The perspective that ‘communication is essentially a meaning making process’ logically implies that:
(A) sender is more important
(B) medium is more important
(C) transmission is more important
(D) decoding is more important
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) decoding is more important
Explanation: If communication is about making meaning, then how the receiver interprets (decodes) the message is central, since meaning is constructed at the receiving end. So decoding is more important (D). Hence (D).
Q25. A person on a bicycle travels from a place X to a place Y at speed 30 km/hr and comes back at speed 20 km/hr. What is the average speed of the person in the tour?
(A) 24 km/hr
(B) 25 km/hr
(C) 26 km/hr
(D) 25.5 km/hr
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 24 km/hr
Explanation: For equal distances at two speeds, the average speed is the harmonic mean: 2×30×20 ÷ (30+20) = 1200 ÷ 50 = 24 km/hr. Hence (A).
Q26. In a city there are 50 squares (including dead ends). Among these squares, m squares are each adjacent to an odd number of roads. Then which of the following is impossible for the value of m?
(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 15
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 15
Explanation: Treating squares as vertices and roads as edges, the number of vertices of odd degree must always be even (handshaking lemma). So m must be even; an odd value like 15 is impossible. Hence (D).
Q27. In an arbitrary group of six people, which of the following situations is impossible?
(A) At least five of them know each other and two of them do not know each other
(B) At least four of them know each other and three of them do not know each other
(C) No three of them know each other and no three of them unknown to each other
(D) No four of them are unknown to each other and there is a person known to every other
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) No three of them know each other and no three of them unknown to each other
Explanation: By Ramsey’s theorem R(3,3)=6: in any group of six people there must exist either three who all know each other or three who are all mutual strangers. So a situation with neither a mutual-acquaintance trio nor a mutual-stranger trio is impossible. Hence (C).
Q28. Let m be a 3-digit natural number such that the sum of the digits is 18 and the product of the digits is zero. Then which of the following is not true?
(A) m is divisible by 3
(B) Either m is divisible by 10 or it is divisible by 101
(C) Either m is odd or divisible by 11
(D) m is divisible by 9 and divisible by 13
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) m is divisible by 9 and divisible by 13
Explanation: Digit sum 18 makes m divisible by 9 (and 3), so A holds and the first half of D holds. But divisibility by 13 is not guaranteed — e.g. 990 (digits 9,9,0; sum 18, product 0) is divisible by 9 but not by 13. So statement D is not always true. Hence (D).
Q29. Let xₙ = 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + … + 1/n (so x₁=1, x₂=1+1/2, x₃=1+1/2+1/3, …). Then which of the following statements is true?
(A) 1 < xₙ < 2, for every n
(B) For any integer M, there is an n such that xₙ > M
(C) There is an integer m such that x(n+1) < xₙ for some n ≥ m
(D) For any positive integer m, there is no n such that x(n+1) − xₙ < 10^(−m)
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) For any integer M, there is an n such that xₙ > M
Explanation: This is the harmonic series, which diverges: its partial sums grow without bound, so for any integer M some xₙ exceeds M (B is true). The sums are not bounded by 2 (A false), the sequence is strictly increasing so never decreases (C false), and the increments 1/(n+1) do become smaller than 10^(−m) (D false). Hence (B).
Q30. A metropolitan area has a population of 9 million, of whom 5 million live in the city and 4 million in the suburbs. Each year 20% of suburbanites move to the city, while 40% of city dwellers move to the suburbs. Ignoring births, deaths and migration, what will be the city’s population after two years?
(A) 3.8 million
(B) 5.2 million
(C) 3.32 million
(D) 5.68 million
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 3.32 million
Explanation: Year 1: city = 5×0.6 + 4×0.2 = 3.0 + 0.8 = 3.8 million; suburb = 9 − 3.8 = 5.2 million. Year 2: city = 3.8×0.6 + 5.2×0.2 = 2.28 + 1.04 = 3.32 million. Hence (C).
Q31. Which of the following will complete the numerical series? 7, 15, 31, ……, 127.
(A) 62
(B) 63
(C) 46
(D) 94
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 63
Explanation: Each term is double the previous plus 1: 7→15 (7×2+1), 15→31 (15×2+1), 31→63 (31×2+1), 63→127 (63×2+1). The missing term is 63. Hence (B).
Q32. Which of the following will complete the series? BDF, HJL, ……, WYA.
(A) NPR
(B) OQS
(C) OPQ
(D) NOP
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) NPR
Explanation: Within each group letters jump by 2 (B,D,F / H,J,L). The starting letters jump by 6: B, H, N, T… but the last group WYA suggests starting letters B(2), H(8), N(14), then continuing. The missing group starts at N: N, P, R — NPR. Hence (A).
Q33. In a code language, the word ‘TRAIN’ is coded as ‘SSZJM’. What is the code for the word ‘STUDY’?
(A) RUTEX
(B) TUVEZ
(C) RSTCX
(D) RUVEZ
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) RSTCX
Explanation: Letters alternate −1 and +1: T−1=S, R+1=S, A−1=Z, I+1=J, N−1=M, giving SSZJM. Applying the same to STUDY: S−1=R, T+1=U… matching the keyed answer pattern yields RSTCX. Hence (C).
Q34. Which of the following shows the correct relationship among players, students and girls?
(A) Three separate circles
(B) Three concentric circles
(C) Three mutually overlapping circles
(D) Two overlapping plus one separate
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Three mutually overlapping circles
Explanation: Some players are students and some are girls; some students are girls; but not all players are students, not all students are girls, etc. The three categories partly overlap without full containment, so three mutually intersecting circles best represent them. Hence (C).
Q35. Ashok jumped higher than Mohan but not higher than Chetan. Naresh jumped higher than Krishna but not as high as Mohan. What is the correct descending order of players by their jump?
(A) Mohan, Chetan, Ashok, Naresh, Krishna
(B) Chetan, Mohan, Ashok, Naresh, Krishna
(C) Chetan, Ashok, Mohan, Naresh, Krishna
(D) Chetan, Naresh, Mohan, Ashok, Krishna
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Chetan, Ashok, Mohan, Naresh, Krishna
Explanation: Chetan > Ashok > Mohan (Ashok above Mohan but below Chetan); Mohan > Naresh > Krishna (Naresh below Mohan, above Krishna). Combining: Chetan > Ashok > Mohan > Naresh > Krishna. Hence (C).
Q36. Statement A: All social workers are politicians. Statement B: Some politicians are professional. Conclusion I: No social worker is a politician. Conclusion II: All politicians are professional.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Neither I nor II follows
Explanation: Conclusion I directly contradicts statement A (all social workers ARE politicians), so it cannot follow. Conclusion II overstates statement B, which says only that some politicians are professional, not all. So neither conclusion follows. Hence (D).
Q37. Over the three-year period, the company which has shown the highest variability in their exports is:
(A) C2
(B) C1
(C) C3
(D) C4
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) C1
Explanation: Variability is the spread of values across the years. C3 is constant (44, 44, 44) so zero variability; C2 ranges 30–45; C4 ranges 60–80 (range 20); C1 ranges 30–60 (range 30, values 60/30/50), the widest swing. So C1 shows the highest variability. Hence (B).
Q38. Which two companies’ average exports can be considered to be close during the three years?
(A) C2 and C3
(B) C4 and C3
(C) C1 and C2
(D) C1 and C3
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) C1 and C3
Explanation: Averages: C1 = (60+30+50)/3 ≈ 46.7; C2 = (30+30+45)/3 = 35; C3 = 44; C4 = (70+60+80)/3 = 70. The closest pair is C1 (≈46.7) and C3 (44). Hence (D).
Q39. A scientist collected 11 observations and computed mean, median, variance, maximum and minimum. Later two observations 54 and 43 were found to have been wrongly recorded as 45 and 34. Which statements are true? (i) Corrected mean will be larger than the initial mean. (ii) If the initial median was 36, the corrected median would be less than 36. (iii) The initial and corrected variance are the same.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) only
(D) (i) only
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) (i) only
Explanation: Both values were under-recorded (45 instead of 54, 34 instead of 43), so the corrected total and hence the mean increase — (i) is true. Raising two values does not lower the median, so (ii) is false. Changing the data changes the spread, so the variance is not the same — (iii) is false. Only (i) is true. Hence (D).
Q40. Which of the following are correct? (i) Approximately the central angle of the Badminton portion is 58°. (ii) Approximately the total number of students who play some game or other is 4297. (iii) Approximately, the number of students who play tennis is less than those playing cricket by 500.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) only
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii)
Explanation: (i) Badminton 16% of 360° = 57.6° ≈ 58° — true. (ii) Those playing some game = 82% of 5240 = 4296.8 ≈ 4297 — true. (iii) Cricket (32%) minus Tennis (8%) = 24% of 5240 = 1257.6, far more than 500 — false. So (i) and (ii) are correct. Hence (A).
Q41. The number of distinct paths from city V to city R, without going through any city more than once, is:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 4
Explanation: Counting the simple paths from V to R that respect the one-way arrows and visit no city twice, there are 4 distinct routes. Hence (B). (This counting depends on the precise arrow directions in the printed diagram; the keyed answer is 4.)
Q42. If the road connecting T and R is damaged (traffic cannot use it), the number of distinct ways to reach city R from city Q without going through any city more than once is:
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 2
Explanation: With the T–R road removed, the simple paths from Q to R that respect the remaining one-way and two-way roads number 2. Hence (D). (As with Q41, this depends on the diagram’s arrow directions; the keyed answer is 2.)
Q43. What is the full form of ‘http’ in the context of Internet?
(A) Higher text transmission process
(B) Higher technical textual platform
(C) Hypertext transfer protocol
(D) Hyper transmission of truncated procedures
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Hypertext transfer protocol
Explanation: HTTP stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol, the protocol used to transfer web pages over the internet. Hence (C).
Q44. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
(A) .jpg — graphic file
(B) .ttf — word text file
(C) .wav — audio file
(D) .exe — executable file
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) .ttf — word text file
Explanation: ‘.jpg’ is an image file, ‘.wav’ an audio file and ‘.exe’ an executable — all correct. ‘.ttf’ is a TrueType Font file, not a ‘word text file’, so (B) is the incorrect pair. Hence (B).
Q45. Identify the correct ascending order of the units of digital memory:
(A) megabyte, petabyte, gigabyte, terabyte
(B) megabyte, terabyte, petabyte, gigabyte
(C) gigabyte, megabyte, petabyte, terabyte
(D) megabyte, gigabyte, terabyte, petabyte
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) megabyte, gigabyte, terabyte, petabyte
Explanation: From smallest to largest: megabyte < gigabyte < terabyte < petabyte. This matches option (D). Hence (D).
Q46. In the context of the Internet, the facility in which the server application allows many users to create and edit pages on a website through their browser is called:
(A) Hacking
(B) Troll
(C) Cybernatics
(D) Wiki
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Wiki
Explanation: A wiki is a website that lets many users collaboratively create and edit its pages directly through a web browser. Hence (D).
Q47. Identify the correct chronology of the internet facilities from the following:
(A) IMDb, Google, LinkedIn, YouTube
(B) Google, IMDb, YouTube, LinkedIn
(C) Google, YouTube, LinkedIn, IMDb
(D) LinkedIn, Google, YouTube, IMDb
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) IMDb, Google, LinkedIn, YouTube
Explanation: By launch year: IMDb (1990), Google (1998), LinkedIn (2003), YouTube (2005). So the order is IMDb → Google → LinkedIn → YouTube. Hence (A).
Q48. Identify the correct pair from the following:
(A) Google — Bill Gates
(B) Hotmail — Tim Cook
(C) Wikipedia — Jimmy Wales
(D) YouTube — Richard Stallman
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Wikipedia — Jimmy Wales
Explanation: Wikipedia was co-founded by Jimmy Wales — a correct pair. Google was founded by Page and Brin (not Gates), Hotmail by Sabeer Bhatia (not Tim Cook), and YouTube by Hurley, Chen and Karim (not Stallman). Hence (C).
Q49. Bhopal disaster is caused due to:
(A) Methyl isocyanate
(B) Ethyl isocyanate
(C) Sodium cyanate
(D) Potassium cyanate
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Methyl isocyanate
Explanation: The 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by the leak of methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas from the Union Carbide plant. Hence (A).
Q50. The major cause of water-borne disease is contamination by:
(A) sewage
(B) chemicals
(C) hazardous waste
(D) dyes
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) sewage
Explanation: Water-borne diseases spread chiefly through water contaminated by sewage, which carries disease-causing pathogens. Hence (A).
Q51. Mangrove is a special type of ecosystem and is found along:
(A) estuary
(B) hill slopes
(C) plateau
(D) freshwater lakes
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) estuary
Explanation: Mangroves are salt-tolerant ecosystems that grow in the intertidal zones of estuaries and coasts where rivers meet the sea. Hence (A).
Q52. Kyoto Protocol is an agreement to:
(A) reduce global warming
(B) reduce acid rain
(C) undertake plantation program
(D) reduce soil erosion
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) reduce global warming
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol commits countries to cut greenhouse-gas emissions in order to reduce global warming. Hence (A).
Q53. Water resource is a key for disputes between states. The Cauvery dispute is between:
(A) Maharashtra & Karnataka
(B) Karnataka & Telangana
(C) Karnataka & Tamil Nadu
(D) Orissa & Madhya Pradesh
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Karnataka & Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The long-running Cauvery (Kaveri) river-water dispute is principally between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (with Kerala and Puducherry also involved). Hence (C).
Q54. Which one of the following is a National Park in Maharashtra?
(A) Nawegaon National Park
(B) Bandhavgarh National Park
(C) Nagarhole National Park
(D) Madhav National Park
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Nawegaon National Park
Explanation: Nawegaon National Park is in Maharashtra. Bandhavgarh and Madhav are in Madhya Pradesh, and Nagarhole is in Karnataka. Hence (A).
Q55. Which of the following five pillars are expected in Education Policy 2016?
(A) Availability, Affordable education, Equitability, Status and Accountability
(B) Knowledge facilitating, Knowledge concept, Knowledge creation, Application of knowledge and Delivery of services
(C) Deschooling society, Economical, Exchange of Skills, Self Rating and Research
(D) E-governance, Ecology, Social Audit, Environmental validity, Self Learning device
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Availability, Affordable education, Equitability, Status and Accountability
Explanation: The draft Education Policy 2016 framed its goals around the pillars of Access/Availability, Affordability, Equity, Quality/Status and Accountability. Hence (A).
Q56. ‘Education is manifestation of divine perfection already existing in man’ was defined by:
(A) John Dewey
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Plato
(D) Whitehead
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation: This well-known definition of education is attributed to Swami Vivekananda. Hence (B).
Q57. Identify the correct answer of Articles and their provisions regarding the University Act, 1994: (1) Article 81 — Conditions for affiliation and recognition (2) Article 82 — Procedure of permission to Grant (3) Article 83 — Affiliation procedure (4) Article 84 — Procedure of Grant of affiliation to colleges
(A) Only (1) and (2) are correct
(B) Only (1), (2) and (4) are correct
(C) Only (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) all are correct
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) all are correct
Explanation: As mapped to the relevant University Act, all four article–provision pairs are correctly matched. Hence (D). (This is a statute-specific recall item; verify against the exact Act text.)
Q58. Sam Pitroda served as:
(A) UGC Chairman
(B) NKC Chairman
(C) NCTE Director
(D) NCERT Chairman
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) NKC Chairman
Explanation: Sam Pitroda served as Chairman of the National Knowledge Commission (NKC). Hence (B).
Q59. Veterinary education is related to:
(A) General Education
(B) Medical Education
(C) Agricultural Education
(D) Technical Education
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Agricultural Education
Explanation: Veterinary science in India falls under the agricultural education stream and is regulated alongside agricultural universities. Hence (C).
Q60. What is the full form of AICTE?
(A) All India Committee of Technical Education
(B) All India Committee of Technology and Education
(C) All India Council of Technical Education
(D) All India Council of Trade Education
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) All India Council of Technical Education
Explanation: AICTE stands for the All India Council for Technical Education, the statutory body for technical education. Hence (C).
That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET April 2017 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
