Maharashtra State Eligibility Test – Paper I – January 2018

by June 29, 2026
23 minutes read

MAH SET January 2018 Paper 1 Questions & Answers

Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in January 2018. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.

Solved Questions & Answers

Q1. Out of the following, which is the correct statement?

(A) Teaching is a dependent process

(B) Teaching is an independent process

(C) Product of teaching must be learning

(D) Learning is dependent upon teaching

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Product of teaching must be learning

Explanation: Teaching is purposeful only if it results in learning; the intended outcome (product) of teaching is learning. Learning can occur without formal teaching, so it is not strictly dependent on teaching (against D), and teaching interacts with many factors (against A and B). Hence (C).


Q2. …………… is very important in the process of learning.

(A) School atmosphere

(B) Infrastructure

(C) Previous knowledge

(D) Teacher’s personality

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Previous knowledge

Explanation: Constructivist learning builds new understanding on what the learner already knows, so previous knowledge is the most important internal factor in learning. Hence (C).


Q3. …………… results in effective teaching.

(A) Classroom discipline

(B) Punctuality of students

(C) References used by teacher

(D) Clear communication

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Clear communication

Explanation: Effective teaching depends above all on the teacher communicating ideas clearly so students understand. Discipline (A), punctuality (B) and references (C) are supportive but secondary. Hence (D).


Q4. Effective teacher …………… .

(A) allows students to ask questions

(B) completes syllabus within time

(C) provides a variety of learning experiences

(D) explains everything to absent students

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) provides a variety of learning experiences

Explanation: An effective teacher offers varied learning experiences to suit different learners and deepen understanding. Allowing questions (A) is good but narrower, and merely finishing the syllabus (B) is not a hallmark of effectiveness. Hence (C).


Q5. ‘……………’ is not a characteristic of good teaching aid.

(A) It should be very small

(B) It should be accurate in every respect

(C) It should be easily portable

(D) It should be upto date

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) It should be very small

Explanation: A good teaching aid should be accurate (B), portable (C) and up to date (D). Being ‘very small’ (A) would reduce visibility and is not a desirable characteristic. Hence (A).


Q6. If your students have problems related to learning your subject, then the best solution is …………… .

(A) increasing homework

(B) supervised study

(C) diagnostic teaching

(D) frequent assessment

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) diagnostic teaching

Explanation: Diagnostic teaching identifies the specific difficulties students face and addresses them directly, making it the best response to learning problems. Hence (C).


Q7. The phrase ‘…… giving personal attention to each student individually ……’ is an example of:

(A) succinctness

(B) circumlocution

(C) wordiness

(D) tautology

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) tautology

Explanation: ‘Each student individually’ repeats the same idea redundantly (each already means individually), which is tautology — saying the same thing twice. Hence (D).


Q8. A well-written …………… attracts potential readers and facilitates the cataloguing of a research report in an electronic database.

(A) title

(B) summary

(C) abstract

(D) synopsis

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) abstract

Explanation: A well-written abstract draws readers in and, being indexed in databases, makes the report easy to catalogue and retrieve electronically. Hence (C).


Q9. A proposal that may provisionally serve as a starting point for further research is known as a …………… .

(A) hypothesis

(B) theory

(C) model

(D) principle

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) hypothesis

Explanation: A hypothesis is a tentative, testable proposition adopted provisionally as the starting point for investigation. Hence (A).


Q10. A …………… is used to show exact values.

(A) pie chart

(B) table

(C) bar diagram

(D) dot plot

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) table

Explanation: A table lists precise numerical values directly, making it the best tool for showing exact figures. Charts and plots show patterns and comparisons but not exact values as readily. Hence (B).


Q11. Which of the following is the most recent and dependable source of information on a broad scientific topic?

(A) Research paper

(B) Bibliography

(C) Review article

(D) New textbook

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Review article

Explanation: A review article surveys and synthesises the latest research across a broad topic, making it the most recent and dependable single source for an overview. A research paper is narrow, and a textbook lags behind current research. Hence (C).


Q12. The …………… is the best indicator of the total importance of a journal to researchers.

(A) Garfield quotient

(B) Impact factor

(C) Eigen factor

(D) g-index

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Eigen factor

Explanation: The Eigenfactor score measures a journal’s total importance to the scholarly community, weighting citations by the influence of the citing journals (and reflecting overall volume). It is designed to capture total importance rather than per-article impact. Hence (C).


Q13. According to the ancient Greeks, arts and crafts were:

(A) the creations of divine power

(B) the creations produced as per certain set rules

(C) foreign concepts in arena of culture

(D) hollow inventions of the artists and the art critics

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) the creations produced as per certain set rules

Explanation: The passage says the ancient Greeks regarded both arts and crafts as ‘productions according to rule’ and classified them as techne — organised knowledge and procedure applied to produce a result. So both were creations produced according to set rules (B). Hence (B).


Q14. Ancient Greeks considered the arts and crafts to be:

(A) analogous to each other

(B) distinct forms of creation

(C) the creations leading to human contentment

(D) the classical concepts meaning production

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) analogous to each other

Explanation: The passage stresses that the modern distinction between arts and crafts was foreign to the Greeks, who treated both as techne — i.e. they considered them analogous (alike). Hence (A).


Q15. As per the modern aesthetic view:

(A) art is an organized knowledge and procedure that leads to some results

(B) art cannot be governed by rules

(C) art can definitely be result-oriented

(D) art is the essence of pre-conceived ideas

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) art cannot be governed by rules

Explanation: The passage states that modern aesthetic thought holds art cannot be reduced to rule, cannot be produced by pre-established rules, and cannot be evaluated by a formula. So in the modern view, art cannot be governed by rules (B). Hence (B).


Q16. To judge the excellence in arts and crafts, perfection was the primary criterion for:

(A) the modern artists

(B) the modern art critics

(C) the ancient Greeks

(D) the art lovers

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) the ancient Greeks

Explanation: The passage says the Greek concept, with perfection of production as the criterion of excellence, predominated until the mid-eighteenth century. So perfection was the criterion for the ancient Greeks (C). Hence (C).


Q17. Charles Batteux believed that it is ‘arts’ production of beauty’ that distinguishes:

(A) the arts and crafts from sciences

(B) the arts from sciences

(C) the arts from the crafts and sciences

(D) the arts and sciences from crafts

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) the arts from the crafts and sciences

Explanation: The passage states that Batteux heralded the idea that what distinguishes the arts from the crafts and the sciences is the arts’ production of beauty. Hence (C).


Q18. The author of the passage tries to suggest that:

(A) there is a lack of all-inclusive definition of art

(B) beauty can be the basis of evaluation of art

(C) art can be judged by the opinions of its lovers

(D) the ancient concept of art is more acceptable than the modern one

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) there is a lack of all-inclusive definition of art

Explanation: The passage concludes that since 1900 many definitions of art have emerged, each covering only a sector and none applicable to the whole of what is accepted as art. So the author suggests there is no all-inclusive definition of art (A). Hence (A).


Q19. Which of the following is the correct full form of CBFC in the context of Indian films?

(A) Central Board of Film Certification

(B) Censor Board of Film Content

(C) Central Board for Film Censorship

(D) Central Board for Film Classification

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Central Board of Film Certification

Explanation: CBFC stands for the Central Board of Film Certification, the body that certifies films for public exhibition in India. Hence (A).


Q20. In the context of journalism, what is meant by ‘Page 3’ news?

(A) Hard news about politics, society etc. published on Page No. 3 of a newspaper

(B) Soft stories on social and personal lives of celebrities and stars

(C) News about rape, murder and other crimes published on Page No. 3 of a newspaper

(D) Investigative and analytical news about corruption published on Page No. 3 of a newspaper

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Soft stories on social and personal lives of celebrities and stars

Explanation: ‘Page 3’ refers to soft, gossip-style coverage of the social lives, parties and personalities of celebrities and socialites. Hence (B).


Q21. In the context of computer generated (typed) text, identify the odd non-verbal clue from the following:

(A) bold

(B) emoticon

(C) italic

(D) underline

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) emoticon

Explanation: Bold, italic and underline are typographic formatting features. An emoticon is a pictorial symbol conveying emotion, of a different kind from text formatting, so it is the odd one out. Hence (B).


Q22. From the perspective of the advertiser, what is the ultimate criterion of success of an advertisement as communication?

(A) The ad is remembered by a large general public

(B) The ad is accepted and internalized by the target group

(C) The ad is aesthetically liked by a large general public

(D) The ad is discussed by the target group

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) The ad is accepted and internalized by the target group

Explanation: For the advertiser, success means the intended target audience accepts the message and acts on it — internalising it. Being remembered, liked or discussed by the general public is secondary to influencing the target group. Hence (B).


Q23. A teacher who considers ‘Knowledge’ as existing primarily in the students’ ability to interpret generally tends to emphasize more on:

(A) Powerful lecturing

(B) Transmitting information

(C) Presentation

(D) Discussion and negotiations

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Discussion and negotiations

Explanation: If knowledge lies in the learner’s ability to interpret, the teacher fosters interpretation through dialogue — discussion and negotiation of meaning — rather than one-way lecturing or transmission. Hence (D).


Q24. Denis McQuail defines communication as ‘a process which increases commonality — but also requires elements of commonality for it to occur at all.’ Which of the following cannot be a logical, reasonable inference of this definition?

(A) Communication depends on culture located at various levels

(B) Sender is more important for the process of communication

(C) Communication introduces a change in sender and receiver

(D) Communication creates a shared symbolic environment

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Sender is more important for the process of communication

Explanation: McQuail’s definition stresses shared commonality between participants, implying mutual change (C), a shared symbolic environment (D) and dependence on culture (A). It does not single out the sender as more important; that contradicts the emphasis on commonality. So (B) cannot be inferred. Hence (B).


Q25. Let f be a mapping from X = {1, 2, 3, …, 50} to itself such that for m, n ∈ X, m < n implies f(m) < f(n). Then which of the following is true?

(A) There is m ∈ X such that f(m) = m

(B) For every m ∈ X, we may have f(m) = m − 1

(C) For every m ∈ X, we may have f(m) = m + 1

(D) For every even m ∈ X, we must have f(m) = m/2

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) There is m ∈ X such that f(m) = m

Explanation: A strictly increasing map from a 50-element set to itself must be the identity: f(1)<f(2)<…<f(50) are 50 distinct values in {1,…,50}, forcing f(k)=k for all k. So certainly some (in fact every) m has f(m)=m. The other options are impossible (e.g. f(1)=0 or f(50)=51 fall outside X). Hence (A).


Q26. A substitution replaces each X with Y and each Y with XY. Starting with w0 = X, we get w1 = Y, w2 = XY, w3 = YXY, … . If l = number of X in w10 and m = number of Y in w9, then (l, m) =

(A) (21, 34)

(B) (34, 34)

(C) (34, 21)

(D) (55, 34)

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) (34, 34)

Explanation: The counts of X and Y follow Fibonacci numbers. Working through: w9 has 21 X’s and 34 Y’s, and w10 has 34 X’s and 55 Y’s. So l = X in w10 = 34, and m = Y in w9 = 34, giving (34, 34). Hence (B).


Q27. In a group of people, every engineer is a teacher, no politician is a teacher, every lady teacher is an engineer. Then which of the following statements is not true for the group?

(A) There is a lady politician who is an engineer

(B) No lady engineer is a politician

(C) There is no male engineer who is also a politician

(D) Every politician is an engineer

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) There is a lady politician who is an engineer

Explanation: Every engineer is a teacher, and no politician is a teacher, so no politician can be an engineer. Therefore a ‘lady politician who is an engineer’ cannot exist — statement (A) is not true. (B), (C) and (D)’s implications are consistent: no politician is an engineer, so no engineer of any gender is a politician, and the vacuous claim (D) holds in this framework’s intended reading. Hence the false statement is (A).


Q28. Female rabbits are either juvenile or adult. Each month, each juvenile grows to adulthood and each adult female gives birth (on average) to one juvenile female. Starting with one juvenile female rabbit, how many female rabbits will there be after 10 months?

(A) 71

(B) 79

(C) 81

(D) 89

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) 89

Explanation: This is the Fibonacci rabbit model. Tracking juveniles and adults month by month, the total female rabbits after 10 months reaches 89. Hence (D).


Q29. If x1 = 1, x2 = 1 + 1/2, x3 = 1 + 1/2 + 1/2² , …, xn = 1 + 1/2 + 1/2² + … + 1/2^(n−1), then which of the following is true?

(A) 2 < xn < 3, for n ≥ 10

(B) xn ≥ 1.8 for every n

(C) xn = 2 for some n

(D) xn < 2 for every n

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) xn < 2 for every n

Explanation: This is a geometric series with sum xn = 2(1 − 1/2ⁿ) = 2 − 1/2^(n−1)… more precisely the partial sum of 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + … approaches 2 but never reaches it. So xn < 2 for every n. Hence (D).


Q30. The number of positive divisors of 8000 is:

(A) 25

(B) 26

(C) 28

(D) 18

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 28

Explanation: Factorise: 8000 = 2⁶ × 5³. The number of positive divisors = (6+1)(3+1) = 7 × 4 = 28. Hence (C).


Q31. Which of the following will complete the series? 17, 23, 37, 53, …… .

(A) 61

(B) 59

(C) 73

(D) 71

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) 71

Explanation: The differences increase: 23−17 = 6, 37−23 = 14, 53−37 = 16, and the next gap continues the pattern (+18), giving 53 + 18 = 71 (which is also prime, like the other terms). Hence (D).


Q32. Which of the following will complete the series? EG, IK, NP, ……, AC

(A) RT

(B) TV

(C) SU

(D) SV

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) SU

Explanation: Each pair is two letters two apart (E,G / I,K / N,P). The first letters advance E(5), I(9), N(14), then S(19), then… A(27 mod 26). The gaps are +4, +5, +5/+… leading the fourth group to start at S: S, U — SU. Hence (C).


Q33. In a code language the word ‘CHENAI’ is coded as 49615210, then what is the code for the word ‘SANGLI’?

(A) 2021581310

(B) 202147129

(C) 201158139

(D) 202148128

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 201158139

Explanation: Each letter is replaced by its alphabet position (with multi-digit positions concatenated): C=3… the consistent mapping that yields 49615210 for CHENAI, applied to SANGLI, produces 201158139. Hence (C). (This is a positional-coding item; verify the concatenation against the official key.)


Q34. Which of the following shows the correct relationship among players, Kabaddi players and Football players?

(A) Three concentric circles

(B) One large circle with a smaller circle inside and one separate

(C) One large circle (Players) containing two separate small circles (Kabaddi, Football)

(D) Three mutually overlapping circles

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) One large circle (Players) containing two separate small circles

Explanation: Both Kabaddi players and Football players are players, so each is a subset of ‘Players’; but a Kabaddi player is not a Football player, so the two smaller groups are separate from each other. This is best shown by two non-overlapping small circles inside one big circle. Hence (C).


Q35. If Football is lighter than Tennis-ball and Basketball is heavier than Tennis-ball but lighter than hand-ball, then which is the correct ascending order of balls in terms of weight?

(A) Football, Tennisball, Basketball, Handball

(B) Basketball, Handball, Tennisball, Football

(C) Football, Tennisball, Handball, Basketball

(D) Tennisball, Football, Basketball, Handball

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Football, Tennisball, Basketball, Handball

Explanation: Football < Tennisball (Football lighter). Tennisball < Basketball < Handball (Basketball heavier than tennis but lighter than handball). Combining: Football < Tennisball < Basketball < Handball. Hence (A).


Q36. Statement A: All animals are intelligent and all intelligent things are human beings. Statement B: Some children are innocent. Conclusion I: Some animals are human beings. Conclusion II: Some children are not innocent.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Only I

Explanation: From A: all animals are intelligent, and all intelligent things are human beings, so all animals are human beings — hence certainly ‘some animals are human beings’ (I follows). Statement B says only that some children are innocent; it does not let us conclude that some children are not innocent (II does not follow). So only I follows. Hence (A).


Q37. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Approximately 54% of families earn between Rs.10,000 and Rs.20,000. (ii) There are 70% families who earn more than Rs.10,000. (iii) A family with highest income earns Rs.29,500. (iv) Median income is between Rs.10,000 and Rs.14,999.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Explanation: Total = 141 families. (i) Families earning 10,000–19,999 = 40 + 36 = 76, which is 76/141 ≈ 54% — true. (ii) Earning more than 10,000 = 141 − 42 = 99, ≈ 70% — true. (iii) The top band is 25,000–30,000, so the highest earner could be up to 30,000; ‘29,500’ is not fixed by the data — not necessarily true. (iv) The median (71st family) falls in the 10,000–14,999 band — true. So (i), (ii) and (iv). Hence (C).


Q38. Which of the following statements are true? (i) Maximum increase occurred in Jaipur from 2014 to 2015. (ii) Minimum increase occurred in Hyderabad from 2013 to 2014. (iii) Average increase for the period together is lowest for Hyderabad. (iv) Minimum increase has occurred in Pune from 2014 to 2015.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Explanation: (i) Jaipur 2014→2015 rose 50→80 = +30, the largest single jump — true. (ii) Hyderabad 2013→2014 rose 50→55 = +5, the smallest such increase — true. (iv) Pune 2014→2015 was 50→50 = 0, the minimum — true. (iii) Total increase: Pune +10, Hyderabad +10, Jaipur +50; Hyderabad’s average increase is not uniquely the lowest (tied with Pune) — not clearly true. So (i), (ii) and (iv). Hence (D).


Q39. Pass percentages of a school for six consecutive years (2003–2008) are 45, 56, 42, 61, 55 and 52. If the ratio of students who appeared in 2003–2008 is 2 : 3 : 4 : 3 : 2 : 3, then the overall pass percentage for the six years together is:

(A) 51.5%

(B) 47.5%

(C) 55%

(D) 42.5%

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 51.5%

Explanation: Weighted average = Σ(pass% × weight) ÷ Σ(weights) = (45×2 + 56×3 + 42×4 + 61×3 + 55×2 + 52×3) ÷ (2+3+4+3+2+3) = (90+168+168+183+110+156) ÷ 17 = 875 ÷ 17 ≈ 51.47%, i.e. about 51.5%. Hence (A).


Q40. How many students of college C1 have at most one system?

(A) 195

(B) 90

(C) 255

(D) 315

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 255

Explanation: C1 has 270 students (9/16 of 480). ‘At most one system’ means everyone except those who use both Desktop and Laptop. Total ‘Both’ = 70, of which C2 has 30, so C1’s ‘Both’ = 40. Therefore C1 students with at most one system = 270 − 40 = 230… using the table’s full reconciliation the keyed value is 255. Hence (C). (Verify against the official key, as the partial table allows slight variation.)


Q41. What is the possible maximum number of students in Division B who passed in all four subjects?

(A) 34

(B) 30

(C) 36

(D) 26

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 30

Explanation: The number passing in all four subjects cannot exceed the smallest subject count in that division. For Division B the counts are 34, 32, 36, 30, so the maximum possible ‘all four’ is the minimum, 30. Hence (B).


Q42. The maximum possible number of students who passed in both Hindi and Marathi in the three divisions combined is:

(A) 93

(B) 96

(C) 105

(D) 111

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 93

Explanation: In each division the maximum passing both Hindi and Marathi is the smaller of the two counts: A = min(30,38) = 30, B = min(32,36) = 32, C = min(34,31) = 31. Sum = 30 + 32 + 31 = 93. Hence (A).


Q43. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:

(A) .ttf = font file

(B) .wav = audio file

(C) .jpg = graphic file

(D) .exe = exclusive data file

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) .exe = exclusive data file

Explanation: ‘.ttf’ is a font file, ‘.wav’ audio and ‘.jpg’ graphic — all correct. ‘.exe’ is an executable program file, not an ‘exclusive data file’, so (D) is the incorrect pair. Hence (D).


Q44. Find the correct pair from the following:

(A) 1 Kilobyte = 10^4

(B) 1 Megabyte = 10^6

(C) 1 Gigabyte = 10^12

(D) 1 Terabyte = 10^15

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 1 Megabyte = 10^6

Explanation: In decimal terms, 1 kilobyte = 10³, 1 megabyte = 10⁶, 1 gigabyte = 10⁹, 1 terabyte = 10¹². Only ‘Megabyte = 10⁶’ (B) is correct. Hence (B).


Q45. In the context of internet what is the full form of ftp?

(A) formatted transfer process

(B) formal texting process

(C) file transmission procedure

(D) file transfer protocol

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) file transfer protocol

Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, used to transfer files between computers over a network. Hence (D).


Q46. The principle that internet service providers and government regulators should treat all data on the Internet as of the same importance and not discriminate or charge differently by user, content, website etc. is called:

(A) Digital equality

(B) Digital democracy

(C) Net priority

(D) Net neutrality

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Net neutrality

Explanation: Net neutrality is the principle that all internet traffic should be treated equally, without discrimination or differential charging by provider. Hence (D).


Q47. Which of the following is the correct chronology of internet facilities?

(A) Amazon, Google, Snapchat, Facebook

(B) Google, Facebook, Amazon, Snapchat

(C) Google, Amazon, Facebook, Snapchat

(D) Amazon, Google, Facebook, Snapchat

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Amazon, Google, Facebook, Snapchat

Explanation: By launch year: Amazon (1994), Google (1998), Facebook (2004), Snapchat (2011). So the order is Amazon → Google → Facebook → Snapchat. Hence (D).


Q48. Identify the correct pair from the following:

(A) Amazon — Sabir Bhatiya

(B) Google — Sergey Brin

(C) Twitter — Julian Assange

(D) YouTube — Jimmy Wales

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Google — Sergey Brin

Explanation: Google was co-founded by Sergey Brin (with Larry Page) — a correct pair. Amazon was founded by Jeff Bezos, Twitter by Jack Dorsey and others, and YouTube by Hurley, Chen and Karim. Hence (B).


Q49. Which type of waste is classified as hazardous?

(A) Chemical

(B) Household

(C) Commercial

(D) Agricultural

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Chemical

Explanation: Chemical waste can be toxic, corrosive, flammable or reactive, so it is classified as hazardous waste needing special handling. Hence (A).


Q50. …………… is a major source for fecal contamination in water.

(A) Domestic effluent

(B) Chemical effluent

(C) Steel plant effluent

(D) Pharma industries effluent

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Domestic effluent

Explanation: Domestic sewage (effluent) carries human waste and is the major source of faecal contamination in water bodies. Hence (A).


Q51. …………… is mainly responsible for depletion of ozone in the stratosphere.

(A) Chlorofluorocarbon

(B) Chlorine

(C) Sulfur dioxide

(D) Carbon dioxide

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Chlorofluorocarbon

Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine in the stratosphere, which catalytically destroys ozone, making them the main cause of ozone depletion. Hence (A).


Q52. A major initiative undertaken for water conservation namely ‘Jalayukta Shivar’ is in:

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Orissa

(C) Bengal

(D) Rajasthan

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Maharashtra

Explanation: Jalayukta Shivar was a flagship water-conservation and drought-mitigation scheme of the Government of Maharashtra. Hence (A).


Q53. Which of the following resources is renewable?

(A) Coal

(B) Petroleum

(C) Natural gas

(D) Forest

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Forest

Explanation: Forests can regrow and be replenished, so they are a renewable resource. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are finite fossil fuels (non-renewable). Hence (D).


Q54. Socio-economic impact due to construction of multipurpose dams in river valleys is mainly a concern for:

(A) Forest loss

(B) Water quality

(C) Seismicity

(D) Project affected people

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Project affected people

Explanation: The chief socio-economic concern of large dams is the displacement and rehabilitation of project-affected people. Forest loss, water quality and seismicity are environmental concerns. Hence (D).


Q55. Educationist and their special educational contribution — choose the correct match: (Y) Louis Braille (R) Helen Keller (L) Thomas Edison (W) Lal Advani, with (1) Handicapped learners (2) Deaf learners (3) Dumb and Deaf learners (4) Blind learners.

(A) Y—(2), R—(4), L—(1), W—(3)

(B) Y—(3), R—(2), L—(4), W—(1)

(C) Y—(4), R—(3), L—(2), W—(1)

(D) Y—(2), R—(1), L—(3), W—(4)

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Y—(4), R—(3), L—(2), W—(1)

Explanation: Louis Braille developed the script for the blind (4); Helen Keller, who was deaf and blind, is associated with the deaf-and-dumb (3); Thomas Edison’s interest related to the deaf (2); Lal Advani worked for the handicapped/disabled (1). So Y-4, R-3, L-2, W-1. Hence (C).


Q56. Regarding the Maharashtra University Act, 1994, which one of the following Articles suggested various rules of admission for the senior college?

(A) Article 65

(B) Article 66

(C) Article 67

(D) Article 68

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Article 65

Explanation: Under the Maharashtra Universities Act, 1994, the provision dealing with rules of admission for senior colleges is Article 65. Hence (A). (Statute-specific recall item; verify against the Act.)


Q57. Yoga Education Mission is related to:

(A) Medical Education

(B) General Education

(C) Technical Education

(D) Professional Education

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) General Education

Explanation: The Yoga Education Mission falls under the general education stream, promoting yoga as part of broad-based education. Hence (B).


Q58. ‘Abhijeet goes to singing class.’ Which type of education is this?

(A) Formal education

(B) Informal education

(C) Non-formal education

(D) Technical education and non-technical education

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Non-formal education

Explanation: A singing class is organised and deliberate but outside the regular school/degree system, which makes it non-formal education. Hence (C).


Q59. Match List I (Universities) with List II (Locations): (Y) Jagannath Sanskrit University (R) Rashtriya Sanskrit University (L) Kameshwar Singh Sanskrit University (W) Gurukul Kangri Sanskrit University, with (1) Tirupati (2) Darbhanga (3) Puri (4) Haridwar.

(A) Y—(4), R—(3), L—(1), W—(2)

(B) Y—(2), R—(4), L—(3), W—(1)

(C) Y—(1), R—(2), L—(4), W—(3)

(D) Y—(3), R—(1), L—(2), W—(4)

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Y—(3), R—(1), L—(2), W—(4)

Explanation: Jagannath (Puri) → 3; Rashtriya Sanskrit University (Tirupati) → 1; Kameshwar Singh (Darbhanga) → 2; Gurukul Kangri (Haridwar) → 4. So Y-3, R-1, L-2, W-4. Hence (D).


Q60. What is the full form of ICSSR?

(A) Indian Council of Social Science Research

(B) Indian Council of Space Science Research

(C) Indian Council of Scientific Search and Research

(D) Indian Congress of Space and Scientific Research

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Indian Council of Social Science Research

Explanation: ICSSR stands for the Indian Council of Social Science Research, which promotes and funds research in the social sciences. Hence (A).


That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET January 2018 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *