MAH SET June 2019 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in June 2019. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. The reflective level teaching is:
(A) teacher-centered and subject-centered but not learner-centered
(B) not teacher-centered but is subject-centered and learner-centered
(C) teacher-centered and not subject-centered and learner-centered
(D) neither teacher-centered nor subject-centered but is learner-centered
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) not teacher-centered but is subject-centered and learner-centered
Explanation: Reflective-level teaching (the highest of memory, understanding and reflective levels) engages learners in problem-solving and critical thinking. It is not merely teacher-centred; it is both subject-centred and learner-centred. Hence (B).
Q2. The adult learner is:
(A) peer-motivated
(B) self-motivated
(C) family-motivated
(D) society-motivated
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) self-motivated
Explanation: Adult learning (andragogy) is characterised by self-direction: adults learn because they choose to, driven by internal goals. So the adult learner is self-motivated. Hence (B).
Q3. Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) are:
(A) flexible and open form of self-directed, online learning designed for mass participation
(B) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, online learning designed for mass participation
(C) flexible and open form of self-directed, off-line learning designed for mass participation
(D) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, off-line learning designed for mass participation
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) flexible and open form of self-directed, online learning designed for mass participation
Explanation: MOOCs are online, open, flexible and self-directed courses intended for large-scale (mass) participation. Hence (A).
Q4. Modern teaching support system includes:
(A) Smart Boards
(B) Green Boards
(C) Charts
(D) Maps
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Smart Boards
Explanation: Smart boards (interactive digital boards) are part of the modern, technology-based teaching support system, unlike traditional green boards, charts and maps. Hence (A).
Q5. Which of the following is not applicable to the internal assessment?
(A) Integration of teaching and evaluation
(B) Testing of skills and abilities
(C) Periodic and continuous
(D) Use of only achievement tests
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Use of only achievement tests
Explanation: Internal assessment integrates teaching and evaluation (A), tests varied skills (B) and is periodic and continuous (C). Restricting it to only achievement tests (D) contradicts its comprehensive nature, so that is not applicable. Hence (D).
Q6. Dialogue method of discovering the truth was given by:
(A) Plato
(B) Socrates
(C) Froebel
(D) Herbart
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Socrates
Explanation: The dialogue (Socratic) method of arriving at truth through questioning and discussion is attributed to Socrates. Hence (B).
Q7. If one variable is measured on a nominal scale and the other on an interval scale, the appropriate research method will be:
(A) Experimental method
(B) Case-study method
(C) Cross-sectional method
(D) Correlation method
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Experimental method
Explanation: When one variable is categorical (nominal, e.g. group membership) and the other is continuous (interval, e.g. a score), the natural design compares groups on the measured variable — characteristic of the experimental method. Hence (A).
Q8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good hypothesis?
(A) Testability
(B) Objectivity
(C) Complexity
(D) Conceptual clarity
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Complexity
Explanation: A good hypothesis should be testable (A), objective (B) and conceptually clear (D). It should be simple, not complex; complexity (C) is not a desirable characteristic. Hence (C).
Q9. If mean and median of a frequency distribution are 20 and 22 respectively, then the mode of the distribution will be:
(A) 21
(B) 16
(C) 26
(D) 11
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 26
Explanation: By the empirical relationship, Mode = 3×Median − 2×Mean = 3×22 − 2×20 = 66 − 40 = 26. Hence (C).
Q10. Using someone else’s research without due acknowledgement is called:
(A) Copyright
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Publication
(D) Patent
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Plagiarism
Explanation: Using another’s work or ideas without proper acknowledgement is plagiarism. Hence (B).
Q11. In the passage, it is implied by the author that his first definition of a ‘Sanctuary’ is:
(A) somewhat idealistic
(B) quite wrong
(C) completely unacceptable
(D) difficult to defend
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) somewhat idealistic
Explanation: The author offers the definition ‘a place where man is passive and the rest of Nature active’, then admits this general definition is ‘too absolute for any special case’ since man must actively protect and manage a sanctuary. This implies the first definition is somewhat idealistic. Hence (A).
Q12. The author seems to be much concerned about the active role of man in the protection of animals because:
(A) he is afraid of the fact that it would lead to the imbalance of the ecological system
(B) he is sure that it is beneficial for the mankind itself
(C) he thinks that man’s passiveness is not a sign of his being alive
(D) he is more idealistic
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) he is afraid of the fact that it would lead to the imbalance of the ecological system
Explanation: The author cautions that, except where intervention is proven beneficial, the less man upsets the balance of Nature the better. His concern about man’s active role is that it may disturb the ecological balance. Hence (A).
Q13. The above passage can be:
(A) a part of an article in a scientific journal
(B) an argument in front of the court of law
(C) a part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
(D) an extract of a scientific report
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) a part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
Explanation: The direct, persuasive address (‘let me tell you’, ‘I am speaking of to-night’) signals an oration. So it reads as part of a speech delivered to an educated audience. Hence (C).
Q14. The author intends to convey the message that:
(A) Man is quite a clever animal
(B) If man fails to maintain the ecological balance, it will be harmful in the long-run
(C) Man wishes to destroy the wildlife as it is harmful for his existence
(D) The balanced ecosystem will decrease the importance of man in the overall affairs of the universe
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) If man fails to maintain the ecological balance, it will be harmful in the long-run
Explanation: The passage warns that wildlife is being killed faster than it can breed and urges conservation, implying that failing to maintain ecological balance will be harmful in the long run. Hence (B).
Q15. The tone of the author can be best described as being:
(A) descriptive
(B) humorous
(C) narrative
(D) sarcastic
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) descriptive
Explanation: The author describes the state of wildlife and the idea of sanctuaries in a measured, explanatory manner, so the tone is best described as descriptive. Hence (A).
Q16. According to Dr. Deval, communication means:
(A) Sharing of ideas
(B) Sharing of experiences
(C) Perception
(D) Sharing of emotions
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Sharing of experiences
Explanation: In Dr. Deval’s formulation, communication is defined as the sharing of experiences. Hence (B).
Q17. To select media to teach a lesson to a class, a teacher should consider the objectives of the lesson, the age group of students, knowledge about media to be used and:
(A) teaching methods
(B) teaching aids
(C) mass media
(D) evaluation system
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) teaching methods
Explanation: Media choice must align with the teaching methods to be used, alongside objectives, learners’ age and media knowledge. Hence (A).
Q18. Traffic signals are an example of …………… communication.
(A) mass
(B) non-verbal
(C) verbal
(D) one to many
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) non-verbal
Explanation: Traffic signals convey meaning through colours and symbols rather than words, making them non-verbal communication. Hence (B).
Q19. Customers coming to a mall and sharing some common interest and group-based activities are steadily increasing. This is the example of a …………… group.
(A) open
(B) closed
(C) peer to peer
(D) hierarchical
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) open
Explanation: A group that anyone can join freely, whose membership keeps growing as people with shared interests come and go, is an open group. Hence (A).
Q20. Sometimes mass media misleads society because receivers are:
(A) heterogenous
(B) in large numbers
(C) illiterate
(D) critical
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) heterogenous
Explanation: The mass-media audience is heterogeneous — diverse and varied in background, understanding and interpretation — so a single message can be misread by different receivers, allowing media to mislead. Hence (A).
Q21. In a game with two players X and Y and n (≥ 4) circles drawn on a paper, players alternately join two different circles not already joined by a line. The winner joins the last available pair, and X starts. Then:
(A) X always wins
(B) Y always wins
(C) X wins whenever n is odd
(D) Y wins whenever n is a power of 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Y always wins
Explanation: The total number of possible connecting lines among n circles is n(n−1)/2. The parity of this total determines who makes the last move. For the configurations intended in this problem, the second player Y can always make the final connection, so Y always wins. Hence (B). (This is a combinatorial-game parity item; the keyed answer is Y.)
Q22. Ten chairs c1…c10 are labelled by numbers 1…10 arbitrarily but so that ki < kj whenever i < j (where ki is the label on chair ci). Then which of the following is true?
(A) For some i, ki = i
(B) There are two i and j such that ki = i and kj = j
(C) All labels must be distinct
(D) For every i, ki = i
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) For every i, ki = i
Explanation: The labels 1–10 are assigned so that they strictly increase with the chair index. A strictly increasing arrangement of 1…10 into positions 1…10 must be the identity: k1 < k2 < … < k10 forces ki = i for every i. Hence (D).
Q23. Flowers in a basket are distributed to five persons in a row: each person receives half the number the previous person received. The fifth person received only one flower and nothing remained. How many flowers were in the basket?
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 15
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 31
Explanation: Working backwards from the fifth person: 1, then 2, 4, 8, 16 for the fourth to first. Total = 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 31. Hence (A).
Q24. If 6 men or 8 children complete one task in 24 days, then how many days will be required to complete the task for 7 men and 12 children?
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 16
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 9
Explanation: 6 men = 8 children in work rate, so 1 man = 8/6 = 4/3 children. 7 men = 28/3 children; with 12 children the team equals 28/3 + 12 = 64/3 children. Total work = 8 children × 24 = 192 child-days. Days = 192 ÷ (64/3) = 9. Hence (B).
Q25. The area of a parallelogram is 128 cm² and its altitude is twice the corresponding base. What is the length of the base?
(A) 6 cm
(B) 7 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 8 cm
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 8 cm
Explanation: Area = base × height, and height = 2 × base, so 128 = base × (2 × base) = 2 × base². Then base² = 64, base = 8 cm. Hence (D).
Q26. Arrange the following terms in a meaningful logical order: (1) Grass (2) Curd (3) Milk (4) Cow (5) Butter
(A) 1—4—3—2—5
(B) 4—3—2—1—5
(C) 5—2—3—4—1
(D) 4—1—3—2—5
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1—4—3—2—5
Explanation: The natural sequence is: grass (eaten by) → cow (gives) → milk (turns into) → curd (churned into) → butter. So Grass, Cow, Milk, Curd, Butter = 1-4-3-2-5. Hence (A).
Q27. If the term HJLN is converted into ILOR, then by the same principle what could be the correct alternative for the term DFHJ?
(A) FHJN
(B) EHKN
(C) EGIL
(D) GILN
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) EHKN
Explanation: Each letter advances by an increasing amount: H+1=I, J+2=L, L+3=O, N+4=R. Applying +1, +2, +3, +4 to DFHJ: D+1=E, F+2=H, H+3=K, J+4=N, giving EHKN. Hence (B).
Q28. ‘Parrots have green colour.’ This statement is a/an:
(A) Perception
(B) Inference
(C) Comparison
(D) Implication
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Perception
Explanation: The statement reports something directly observed by the senses (the colour of parrots), which is a perception. Hence (A).
Q29. Which of the following is/are the valid conclusions? Statement I: All donkeys are hardworking. Statement II: Some hardworking animals are human beings. Conclusion 1: Some donkeys are hardworking. Conclusion 2: Some donkeys are human beings.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Since all donkeys are hardworking, certainly some donkeys are hardworking — conclusion 1 follows. The hardworking animals that are human need not include any donkeys, so conclusion 2 does not follow. Only 1 follows. Hence (A).
Q30. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship among: Boys, Students, Girls?
(A) Three concentric circles
(B) One large circle (Students) containing two separate circles (Boys, Girls)
(C) Three overlapping circles
(D) Three separate circles
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) One large circle (Students) containing two separate circles
Explanation: Both boys and girls can be students, so each is a subset of ‘Students’; but a boy is not a girl, so the two are separate from each other. This is shown by two non-overlapping circles (Boys, Girls) inside one big circle (Students). Hence (B).
Q31. Total candidates appeared = 1000; male candidates = 550; candidates passed = 700. The number of successful male candidates will lie between the limits:
(A) 100 to 250
(B) 250 to 550
(C) 550 to 700
(D) 700 to 1000
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 250 to 550
Explanation: There are 450 female candidates. At most all 550 males passed (upper limit 550). At least, if all 450 females passed, the remaining 700 − 450 = 250 passers are male (lower limit 250). So successful males lie between 250 and 550. Hence (B).
Q32. Find the number of male employees in state D:
(A) 14,000
(B) 6,000
(C) 28,000
(D) 20,000
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 28,000
Explanation: State D has 40,000 employees in male:female ratio 14:6 (total 20 parts). Males = 14/20 × 40,000 = 28,000. Hence (C).
Q33. Find the number of post-graduate female employees in state B:
(A) 8,000
(B) 15,000
(C) 350
(D) 7,000
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 15,000
Explanation: State B has 30,000 employees, of whom 50% are post-graduates = 15,000. On the intended reading the keyed answer is 15,000. Hence (B). (If ‘post-graduate female’ is taken strictly, females = 7/15 × 30,000 = 14,000; verify against the official key.)
Q34. If the cost of paper is Rs. 16,000, then find the amount of other charges:
(A) Rs. 16,000
(B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 8,000
(D) Rs. 12,000
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Rs. 8,000
Explanation: Paper (B) is 20% = Rs. 16,000, so total = 16,000 ÷ 0.20 = Rs. 80,000. Other charges (E) = 100 − 35 − 20 − 15 − 20 = 10% of 80,000 = Rs. 8,000. Hence (C).
Q35. The tax deducted at source is 10% of the royalty amount; then the amount of tax paid is:
(A) Rs. 1,200
(B) Rs. 800
(C) Rs. 1,000
(D) Rs. 8,000
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Rs. 1,200
Explanation: Royalty (C) = 15% of Rs. 80,000 = Rs. 12,000. Tax at 10% = Rs. 1,200. Hence (A).
Q36. Which of the following is the correct full form of IPTV?
(A) International and Political Television
(B) Internet Proliferation Television
(C) Inter Provisional Television
(D) Internet Protocol Television
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Internet Protocol Television
Explanation: IPTV stands for Internet Protocol Television — delivering TV content over IP networks rather than traditional broadcast. Hence (D).
Q37. The world’s first computer, ENIAC, was developed in the year:
(A) 1945
(B) 1940
(C) 1955
(D) 1960
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1945
Explanation: ENIAC, one of the earliest general-purpose electronic computers, was completed in 1945. Hence (A).
Q38. Which communication service has been recently closed in India?
(A) Postal service
(B) Landline
(C) Telegram
(D) Fax
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Telegram
Explanation: India’s telegram (telegraph) service was discontinued in 2013 after over 160 years. Hence (C).
Q39. For recruitment as a school teacher in Maharashtra one must enroll on the web portal:
(A) Saral
(B) Maha Jobs
(C) e-Seva
(D) Pavitra
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Pavitra
Explanation: The ‘Pavitra’ (Portal for Visible to All Teachers Recruitment) portal is used for transparent teacher recruitment in Maharashtra. Hence (D).
Q40. Which statement is not correct with respect to the National Digital Library of India?
(A) It is a project by Department of Technology
(B) It is a virtual repository of learning resources with single window search facility
(C) It is friendly to differently-abled learners
(D) It is being developed at Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) It is a project by Department of Technology
Explanation: The National Digital Library of India is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), developed at IIT Kharagpur — not a project of a ‘Department of Technology’. So (A) is incorrect. The other statements are true. Hence (A).
Q41. Convention on Ozone Depleting Substances is also known as:
(A) Basel Convention
(B) Montreal Protocol
(C) Ramsar Convention
(D) Conference of Parties
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Montreal Protocol
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol is the international agreement to phase out ozone-depleting substances. Hence (B).
Q42. Unit used to measure noise level is:
(A) Joule
(B) PPM
(C) Bit
(D) dB
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) dB
Explanation: Noise (sound) level is measured in decibels (dB). Hence (D).
Q43. Green India Mission was part of the:
(A) Millennium Development Goals
(B) River Action Plan
(C) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(D) National Action Plan for climate change
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) National Action Plan for climate change
Explanation: The National Mission for a Green India (Green India Mission) is one of the eight missions under India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change. Hence (D).
Q44. The International Solar Alliance, established to develop co-operation in solar energy, was proposed by:
(A) Indian Prime Minister
(B) French President
(C) African Union
(D) European Union
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Indian Prime Minister
Explanation: The International Solar Alliance was jointly launched, with the proposal led by the Indian Prime Minister (alongside France). Among the options, the Indian Prime Minister is the keyed answer. Hence (A).
Q45. Concentration of toxic chemicals through the food-chain results in:
(A) Accumulation
(B) Excretion
(C) Biomagnification
(D) Elimination
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Biomagnification
Explanation: The increasing concentration of toxic substances at successive levels of a food chain is called biomagnification. Hence (C).
Q46. Technical and scientific education was given in:
(A) Vedic system of education
(B) Pre-Vedic system of education
(C) Buddhist system of education
(D) Islamic system of education
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Buddhist system of education
Explanation: The Buddhist system of education, centred on great universities like Nalanda and Takshashila, included technical and scientific subjects such as medicine and logic. Hence (C).
Q47. According to the UGC list published, the state with the most universities is:
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Rajasthan
Explanation: At the time of the relevant UGC listing, Rajasthan had the highest number of universities among the states. Hence (D). (This is a count that changes over time; verify against the specific UGC list referenced.)
Q48. For creation and development of MOOC courses in different disciplines, MHRD has notified …………… as one of the eight national co-ordinators.
(A) Mumbai Vidyapeeth
(B) U.G.C.
(C) YCMOU
(D) IIT Mumbai
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) U.G.C.
Explanation: The UGC is one of the eight national coordinators notified by MHRD for developing MOOCs (on the SWAYAM platform). Hence (B).
Q49. Most of the State Universities are …………… in nature.
(A) Affiliating Universities
(B) Deemed Universities
(C) Self-financing Universities
(D) Private Universities
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Affiliating Universities
Explanation: Most state universities are affiliating universities — they affiliate and oversee a network of colleges. Hence (A).
Q50. Which organization arranges administrative courses for principals?
(A) HRD Ministry
(B) UGC
(C) NUEPA
(D) NCTE
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) NUEPA
Explanation: The National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA, now NIEPA) conducts administrative and leadership courses for educational administrators and principals. Hence (C).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET June 2019 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
