MAH SET December 2020 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in December 2020. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. Reflective teaching is a …………… .
(A) Cyclic process of thinking about learning
(B) Linear process of thinking about teaching
(C) Cyclic process of thinking about teaching
(D) Linear process of thinking about learning
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Cyclic process of thinking about teaching
Explanation: Reflective teaching is an ongoing, cyclical process in which a teacher continually thinks about, evaluates and refines their own teaching. It centres on teaching (not just learning) and is cyclic rather than linear. Hence (C).
Q2. A teacher should identify …………… and teach accordingly.
(A) economic condition of students
(B) individual differences among students
(C) economic condition of parents
(D) individual differences among parents
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) individual differences among students
Explanation: Effective teaching adapts to learners, so a teacher should recognise the individual differences among students (in ability, pace, style) and teach accordingly. Hence (B).
Q3. SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of …………… channels devoted to telecasting of high quality educational programmes.
(A) 32 DTH
(B) 24 DHT
(C) 7 THD
(D) 12 TDH
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 32 DTH
Explanation: SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 32 DTH (Direct-To-Home) channels that telecast high-quality educational programmes around the clock. Hence (A).
Q4. A traditional teaching support system includes …………… .
(A) White Board
(B) Smart Board
(C) Digital Board
(D) Three-Dimensional Models
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) White Board
Explanation: Among the options, the white board is a traditional (non-digital) teaching aid, whereas smart boards and digital boards are modern technology-based systems. Hence (A).
Q5. A teacher goes through the student’s notebooks and gives remarks. This is called …………… .
(A) Notebook checking
(B) Daily Remarks
(C) Evaluation
(D) Assessment
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Assessment
Explanation: Reviewing students’ work and giving feedback to gauge their progress is assessment. ‘Notebook checking’ (A) merely names the act, while assessment captures the evaluative judgement of learning. Hence (D).
Q6. Socrates has given …………… method of discovering the truth.
(A) Experimental
(B) Observation
(C) Criticism
(D) Dialogue
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Dialogue
Explanation: Socrates is associated with the dialogue (Socratic) method — discovering truth through questioning and discussion. Hence (D).
Q7. Experimental researches are aimed to …………… .
(A) establish association between variables
(B) describe variables
(C) study the application of theory
(D) study trend analysis
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) establish association between variables
Explanation: Experimental research manipulates variables under controlled conditions to establish relationships (cause-and-effect/association) between them. Hence (A).
Q8. Limitations laid down by the researcher are called …………… .
(A) Objectives
(B) Delimitations
(C) Assumptions
(D) Hypothesis
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Delimitations
Explanation: Boundaries deliberately set by the researcher to narrow the scope of a study are called delimitations. Limitations (uncontrollable weaknesses) differ from these self-imposed delimitations. Hence (B).
Q9. For any frequency distribution, the 50th percentile and …………… are the same.
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Quartile Deviation
(D) Standard Deviation
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Median
Explanation: The 50th percentile divides the data into two equal halves, which is exactly the definition of the median. Hence (B).
Q10. A researcher uses data of an earlier research paper and publishes a new research paper. This is …………… .
(A) ethical
(B) unethical
(C) permissible
(D) proper
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) unethical
Explanation: Reusing another’s data without proper acknowledgement and passing off the work as new is academically dishonest (plagiarism/data misuse), making it unethical. Hence (B).
Q11. What does the author mean when he says that since the last decade, the higher education sector has been occupying a dominant position in the economic planning process?
(A) The last decade in political scenario is more dominant than the previous ones
(B) The higher education sector is dominating the other sectors
(C) The policy makers with finance department have been dominant during the last decade
(D) Comparatively more financial support is given to higher education sector during the last decade
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Comparatively more financial support is given to higher education sector during the last decade
Explanation: In the context of economic planning and public spending allocations, ‘dominant position’ means the sector has been receiving comparatively greater financial support and priority in recent planning. Hence (D).
Q12. The policy makers in India are taking steps to increase expenditure towards the higher education sector because:
(A) They aim at enabling India to match upto global standards
(B) They wish to influence the global market
(C) There is a lot of pressure in international politics
(D) A lot of funding is available from global financial institutions
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) They aim at enabling India to match upto global standards
Explanation: The passage states that government policy aims at expansion, excellence and equity, taking initiatives that can enable India to match up to global standards. Hence (A).
Q13. The attitude of the author towards the teachers is …………… .
(A) Ironical
(B) Doubtful
(C) Sympathetic
(D) Disrespectful
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Sympathetic
Explanation: The author writes with concern about highly educated professionals being stuck in a volatile, ad hoc academic ecosystem with no protective law — a sympathetic stance towards teachers. Hence (C).
Q14. The author says that today a significant proportion of highly educated professionals is stuck in a volatile academic ecosystem because:
(A) Highly educated professionals are ill-trained
(B) There is a lack of formal law to govern the terms and conditions of contractual engagement of highly educated professionals
(C) There is a lack of motivation on the part of highly educated professionals
(D) There is a lack of unity among the highly educated professionals
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) There is a lack of formal law to govern the terms and conditions of contractual engagement
Explanation: The passage states they are recruited on an ad hoc basis with no formal law governing their contractual terms, and that existing labour law covers only blue-collar workers. Hence (B).
Q15. Statement I: There is growth in the number of universities. Statement II: There is growth in absolute increase in employment. According to the passage:
(A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(C) Both Statements I and II are true
(D) Both Statements I and II are false
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
Explanation: The passage notes the growing number of universities (58%) but with negative growth in absolute increase in employment. So I is true and II is false. Hence (A).
Q16. While defining communication, Miller focuses on …………… .
(A) behavioural change of receiver
(B) message
(C) perception
(D) sender
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) behavioural change of receiver
Explanation: Miller’s definition of communication emphasises situations in which a source transmits a message to a receiver with the conscious intent of affecting the receiver’s behaviour — i.e. the behavioural change of the receiver. Hence (A).
Q17. Serial functions of the sender in the communication cycle are:
(A) Collection — formulation — encoding — projection
(B) Receiving — decoding — interpretation — projection
(C) Receiving — formulation — decoding — projection
(D) Encoding — formulation — decoding — projection
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Collection — formulation — encoding — projection
Explanation: The sender first collects ideas/information, formulates the message, encodes it into symbols, and then projects (transmits) it. Hence (A).
Q18. The components of the communication cycle are sender, message, receiver and …………… .
(A) noise
(B) media
(C) barriers
(D) feedback
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) feedback
Explanation: The communication cycle is completed by feedback from the receiver back to the sender, making the process two-way. Hence (D).
Q19. Which of the following is one of the communications based on number of parties involved?
(A) Personal communication
(B) Formal communication
(C) Horizontal communication
(D) Informal communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Personal communication
Explanation: Classifying by the number of parties gives types such as personal (intra/inter-personal), group and mass communication. ‘Personal communication’ fits this basis, whereas formal/informal and horizontal classify by other criteria. Hence (A).
Q20. Characteristics of mass media communication are large number of audiences, heterogeneous audiences, scattered audiences and …………… .
(A) illiterate audiences
(B) noise disturbance
(C) absence of direct feedback
(D) powerful media
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) absence of direct feedback
Explanation: Mass communication reaches large, diverse, dispersed audiences with no immediate, direct feedback from them. Hence (C).
Q21. Consider the set-theoretic expressions X, Y and Z (∪ union, ∩ intersection, superscript C complement): X = P∩Q∩R; Y = (P∩Q) ∪ (P∩R) ∪ (Q∩RᶜΩ); Z = (Q∪Pᶜ) ∩ (P∪R) ∩ (P∪Q) ∩ P ∩ (Pᶜ∪R). Which of the following is true?
(A) No two expressions represent same set
(B) All three expressions represent same set
(C) Only X and Z represent same set
(D) Only Y and Z represent same set
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Only X and Z represent same set
Explanation: Simplifying Z using set identities reduces it to P∩Q∩R, which is exactly X. Y simplifies to a larger set, so only X and Z represent the same set. Hence (C). (This is a set-algebra simplification item; the keyed answer is X and Z.)
Q22. Consider the ordered strings of pebbles in three colours green (G), blue (B), red (R): X = GGBRBRRBBR; Y = GBRRBRBBRG; Z = RBBRGGBRBR. Which two give identical necklaces when the first and last pebbles are made adjacent (treating it as a circular arrangement)?
(A) X and Y
(B) Y and Z
(C) X and Z
(D) No two of them are identical
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) X and Z
Explanation: Treating each string as a circular necklace (joining the ends), a rotation of one string can match another. Rotating Z aligns it with X, so X and Z give identical necklaces. Hence (C). (Verify by rotating the circular sequences against the official key.)
Q23. The average weight of 25 children sitting in a boat is 22 kg. The average weight of the 25 children and the boatman together is 24 kg. What is the weight of the boatman in kg?
(A) 74
(B) 71
(C) 75
(D) 100
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 74
Explanation: Total weight of 25 children = 25 × 22 = 550 kg. With the boatman, total for 26 people = 26 × 24 = 624 kg. Boatman’s weight = 624 − 550 = 74 kg. Hence (A).
Q24. Dayanand planted sugarcane in 1/3 of his farm, groundnut in 1/4 of his farm and jowar in the remaining farm of 25 acres. How much is the total farm in acres?
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 120
(D) 75
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 60
Explanation: Fraction under jowar = 1 − 1/3 − 1/4 = 1 − 7/12 = 5/12. This equals 25 acres, so total = 25 × 12/5 = 60 acres. Hence (B).
Q25. What sum is to be invested for 2 years at 14% interest compounded annually to grow to Rs. 5458.32?
(A) 4120
(B) 3300
(C) 4200
(D) 4400
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 4200
Explanation: Principal = Amount ÷ (1 + r)² = 5458.32 ÷ (1.14)² = 5458.32 ÷ 1.2996 = Rs. 4200. Hence (C).
Q26. While entering the train, Anil was ahead of Shyam, who was ahead of Kiran; Anil was behind Shweta. Which shows the correct order of entry?
(A) Anil — Shyam — Kiran — Shweta
(B) Shweta — Shyam — Anil — Kiran
(C) Shweta — Anil — Shyam — Kiran
(D) Anil — Shweta — Shyam — Kiran
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Shweta — Anil — Shyam — Kiran
Explanation: Anil is ahead of Shyam, Shyam ahead of Kiran, and Anil behind Shweta. So the order is Shweta first, then Anil, then Shyam, then Kiran. Hence (C).
Q27. If LONQ is converted into JMLO, then by the same principle what could be the correct alternative for GDJM?
(A) EBHK
(B) ECIL
(C) EHIK
(D) ECHK
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) EBHK
Explanation: Each letter is shifted back by 2: L−2=J, O−2=M, N−2=L, Q−2=O, giving JMLO. Applying −2 to GDJM: G−2=E, D−2=B, J−2=H, M−2=K, giving EBHK. Hence (A).
Q28. Which of the following is a correct description of the statement: ‘All animals die. Human beings are animals. ∴ Every human will die.’?
(A) Perception
(B) Inference
(C) Comparison
(D) Implication
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Inference
Explanation: A conclusion drawn logically from given premises is an inference (here a valid deductive inference). Hence (B).
Q29. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship among the three terms — Women, Sisters, Mothers?
(A) Three concentric circles
(B) One large circle (Women) containing two overlapping circles (Sisters, Mothers)
(C) Three separate circles
(D) Sisters and Mothers fully separate inside Women
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) One large circle (Women) containing two overlapping circles
Explanation: All sisters and all mothers are women, so both lie inside ‘Women’. A person can be both a sister and a mother, so the Sisters and Mothers circles overlap, both within the larger Women circle. Hence (B).
Q30. Statement I: All players are aggressive. Statement II: Some politicians are aggressive. Conclusion 1: Some politicians are not aggressive. Conclusion 2: Some players are politicians. Which is/are valid?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: From ‘some politicians are aggressive’ we cannot conclude that some politicians are not aggressive (conclusion 1 does not follow). Nor can we link players and politicians directly, so ‘some players are politicians’ (conclusion 2) does not follow. Neither follows. Hence (D).
Q31. In which year is the revenue generated per unit exported maximum?
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 2012
Explanation: Revenue per unit (Rs. crore per lakh unit = Rs.100 per unit, scaled): 2011 = 20/10 = 2.0; 2012 = 15/5 = 3.0; 2013 = 35/15 ≈ 2.33; 2014 = 40/20 = 2.0; 2015 = 50/30 ≈ 1.67. The highest ratio is in 2012. Hence (A).
Q32. What is the average (arithmetic mean) per unit revenue generated during 2011 to 2015?
(A) Rs. 166
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 233
(D) Rs. 300
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Rs. 200
Explanation: Total revenue = 20 + 15 + 35 + 40 + 50 = 160 crore; total quantity = 10 + 5 + 15 + 20 + 30 = 80 lakh units. Overall revenue per unit = 160/80 = 2 (crore per lakh) = Rs. 200 per unit. Hence (B).
Q33. How many students failed in exactly two languages?
(A) 195
(B) 165
(C) 250
(D) 255
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 165
Explanation: Exactly two = (M&E − all) + (M&H − all) + (E&H − all) = (125−30) + (70−30) + (60−30) = 95 + 40 + 30 = 165. Hence (B).
Q34. How many failed in only one language?
(A) 195
(B) 165
(C) 250
(D) 255
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 250
Explanation: Only Marathi = 220 − (125 + 70 − 30) = 220 − 165 = 55; only English = 300 − (125 + 60 − 30) = 300 − 155 = 145; only Hindi = 150 − (70 + 60 − 30) = 150 − 100 = 50. Sum = 55 + 145 + 50 = 250. Hence (C).
Q35. Areas (sq km) and populations (lakh): A 80,000/16; B 50,000/10; C 10,000/4; D 5,000/3. Which is the most thickly populated state?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) D
Explanation: Population density = population ÷ area: A = 16 lakh/80,000 = 20 per sq km; B = 10 lakh/50,000 = 20; C = 4 lakh/10,000 = 40; D = 3 lakh/5,000 = 60. The highest density is D. Hence (D).
Q36. Which of the following is the correct full form of TRAI?
(A) Television Regulatory Authority of India
(B) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(C) Teleservices Regulatory Authority of India
(D) Telephone Regulatory Authority of India
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
Explanation: TRAI stands for the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, which regulates the telecommunications sector. Hence (B).
Q37. In which year was the Information Technology Act enacted in India?
(A) 2005
(B) 1980
(C) 2000
(D) 1990
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 2000
Explanation: The Information Technology Act of India was enacted in the year 2000. Hence (C).
Q38. Who played an important role in developing the first supercomputer in India?
(A) APJ Abdul Kalam
(B) Anil Kakodkar
(C) Raghunath Mashelkar
(D) Vijay Bhatkar
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Vijay Bhatkar
Explanation: Dr. Vijay Bhatkar led the development of India’s first indigenous supercomputer, PARAM. Hence (D).
Q39. The Government of Maharashtra has made it compulsory for schools to enter information of all students on the web portal known as:
(A) Pavitra
(B) Saral
(C) Sarathi
(D) Shalartha
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Saral
Explanation: The ‘Saral’ portal is used by Maharashtra schools to enter and maintain data of all students (and staff). Hence (B).
Q40. Which among the following is part of the digital initiatives for higher education in India?
(A) National School of Digital Arts
(B) National Academic Depository
(C) Central Data of Indian Universities
(D) Digital Vidya
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) National Academic Depository
Explanation: The National Academic Depository (NAD) is a digital initiative to store and authenticate academic awards and certificates online. Hence (B).
Q41. One of the following wastes is not a hazardous one:
(A) Agricultural residue
(B) Chemical
(C) Paint
(D) Electroplating waste
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Agricultural residue
Explanation: Chemical waste, paint and electroplating waste are hazardous due to toxic content. Agricultural residue is generally biodegradable and non-hazardous. Hence (A).
Q42. The UN Conference on Environment and Development in 1992 was held at:
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(B) Stockholm
(C) Paris
(D) Johannesburg
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Rio de Janeiro
Explanation: The 1992 UN Conference on Environment and Development (the ‘Earth Summit’) was held at Rio de Janeiro. Hence (A).
Q43. Biomedical waste of human and animal tissues, organs and infected body parts is to be disposed using:
(A) Autoclaving
(B) Microwave
(C) Composting
(D) Incineration
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Incineration
Explanation: Anatomical biomedical waste (tissues, organs, infected body parts) is disposed of by incineration (high-temperature burning). Hence (D).
Q44. Landslide hazards are common in hilly regions due to:
(A) Loss of vegetation
(B) Loss of soil
(C) Cutting of hill slopes
(D) All of the above
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Landslides in hilly areas result from loss of vegetation, loss/erosion of soil and cutting of hill slopes — all of these weaken slope stability. Hence (D).
Q45. The International Solar Alliance was established to promote solar energy. Its headquarters is at:
(A) Gwal Pahari, Gurgaon
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Dubai
(D) Nairobi
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Gwal Pahari, Gurgaon
Explanation: The International Solar Alliance has its headquarters at Gwal Pahari, Gurugram (Gurgaon), Haryana, India. Hence (A).
Q46. To receive the degree, a learner was expected to learn a minimum of …………… years in the Gurukul.
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 06
(D) 08
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 12
Explanation: In the ancient Gurukul system, a learner was generally expected to study for a minimum of 12 years to complete education and receive the degree. Hence (A).
Q47. The University Education Commission (1948) recommended a minimum of …………… working days (excluding examination days) in universities and colleges.
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 220
(D) 240
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 180
Explanation: The University Education Commission (1948, Radhakrishnan Commission) recommended a minimum of 180 working days in the academic year, excluding examination days. Hence (A).
Q48. The main role of UGC in higher education is to:
(A) open universities all over India
(B) accredit universities
(C) control university administration
(D) provide funds to universities
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) provide funds to universities
Explanation: A central function of the University Grants Commission is to provide grants/funds to universities and colleges (alongside coordinating and maintaining standards). Hence (D).
Q49. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is established at:
(A) Nagpur
(B) Calcutta
(C) Panjim
(D) Chennai
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Nagpur
Explanation: NEERI, the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, has its headquarters at Nagpur. Hence (A).
Q50. The Supreme Court directed, in a judgement given in 1991, to make the subject …………… compulsory in the college curricula.
(A) women study
(B) environmental study
(C) information technology
(D) value education
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) environmental study
Explanation: The Supreme Court directed that environmental study (environmental education) be made a compulsory subject in college curricula. Hence (B).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET December 2020 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
