MAH SET September 2021 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in September 2021. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. Understanding level of teaching includes …………… : (i) Memory (ii) Aptitude (iii) Insight (iv) Creativity
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) (i) and (iii)
Explanation: The understanding level of teaching (between memory level and reflective level) builds on memory and adds insight — grasping relationships and meaning. So it includes memory (i) and insight (iii). Hence (C).
Q2. The most intellectually fertile period of a human being is …………… .
(A) Childhood
(B) Adolescence
(C) Adulthood
(D) Old age
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Adolescence
Explanation: Adolescence is regarded as a highly intellectually fertile period, marked by rapid cognitive development, abstract reasoning and creativity. Hence (B).
Q3. ‘Online Discussion Forum’ of SWAYAM is for …………… .
(A) Clearing the doubts
(B) Self-assessment
(C) Watching video lectures
(D) Downloading reading material
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Clearing the doubts
Explanation: SWAYAM’s online discussion forum lets learners interact with mentors and peers to clear doubts. Video lectures, self-assessment and reading material are separate components. Hence (A).
Q4. History cannot be taught by using …………… .
(A) Digital charts
(B) Maps
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Role play method
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Demonstration method
Explanation: History is taught using charts, maps and role play (dramatising events), but the demonstration method — showing how to perform a process or skill — does not suit the largely narrative, non-procedural content of history. Hence (C).
Q5. Absolute and relative grading are types of …………… grading.
(A) Indirect
(B) Direct
(C) Special
(D) Standard
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Direct
Explanation: Absolute grading (against fixed standards) and relative grading (against peers) are both forms of direct grading. Hence (B).
Q6. The most essential quality for a researcher is …………… .
(A) Punctuality
(B) Intelligence
(C) Genuine interest in research
(D) Mastery over own subject
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Genuine interest in research
Explanation: A genuine interest in research sustains the curiosity, perseverance and effort needed to carry an investigation through. It is the most essential quality, more so than punctuality, intelligence or subject mastery alone. Hence (C).
Q7. Recording of ‘reflective notes’ in qualitative research is called …………… .
(A) Coding
(B) Memoing
(C) Decoding
(D) Instructing
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Memoing
Explanation: In qualitative research, writing reflective notes (memos) about emerging ideas and interpretations during analysis is called memoing. Coding (A) is labelling data segments, a different step. Hence (B).
Q8. A variable ‘Academic Achievement’ will be measured on …………… scale.
(A) Nominal
(B) Interval
(C) Ratio
(D) Ordinal
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Interval
Explanation: Academic achievement, measured as marks or scores, is treated as an interval scale (equal intervals, no true zero). Hence (B).
Q9. If a frequency distribution has some extreme scores, then the appropriate measure of central tendency will be …………… .
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Range
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Median
Explanation: The median is resistant to extreme scores (outliers), unlike the mean which is pulled toward them. So with extreme scores present, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. Hence (B).
Q10. A research paper is based on …………… : (i) Primary data (ii) Secondary data (iii) Descriptive data
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii)
Explanation: A research paper may draw on data the researcher collects first-hand (primary) and on existing data from other sources (secondary). So it is based on (i) and (ii). Hence (C).
Q11. This passage says that early instruments for measuring earthquakes were …………… .
(A) Faulty in design
(B) Expensive
(C) Not sensitive enough
(D) Not sturdy
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Not sensitive enough
Explanation: The passage says the simple rod device worked, but that instruments far more delicate were needed if any really serious advance was to be made — implying the early instruments were not sensitive enough. Hence (C).
Q12. The author says that it was necessary to invent instruments to observe an earthquake because …………… .
(A) We have to prove that we are technically sound
(B) An earthquake comes all of a sudden like a thief
(C) It will allow us to show our expertise
(D) We have to keep ourselves busy
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) An earthquake comes all of a sudden like a thief
Explanation: The passage opens by saying an earthquake comes like a thief in the night, without warning, so instruments that never sleep were needed to detect it. Hence (B).
Q13. The earlier device consisting of rods was replaced because it failed …………… .
(A) To measure a severe earthquake
(B) To record the direction of the earthquake
(C) To measure a gentle earthquake
(D) To record the movements with a pen on paper
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) To record the movements with a pen on paper
Explanation: The passage explains that the ideal was an instrument that could record the ground’s movements with a pen on paper as the quake passed; the rod device could not do this, which is why more delicate instruments were sought. Hence (D).
Q14. The everyday observation mentioned in the passage is related to …………… .
(A) The tendency of a standing person to fall when a bus or train moves suddenly
(B) The movement of a bus or train
(C) The passengers standing in a bus or train
(D) The sudden start of a train
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) The tendency of a standing person to fall when a bus or train moves suddenly
Explanation: The passage points to the everyday observation that a standing person in a bus or train tends to fall on a sudden start, because the feet move on while the head stays still — the principle used in seismometers. Hence (A).
Q15. According to the passage, the meaning of the word ‘slumber’ is …………… .
(A) Shock
(B) Sleep
(C) Ground
(D) Suggestion
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Sleep
Explanation: In the passage ‘slumbered nor slept’ and ‘the slumbering scientist’ use slumber in the sense of sleep. Hence (B).
Q16. According to Newcomb, …………… is not so much important in the communication cycle.
(A) Sender
(B) Receiver
(C) Media
(D) Message
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Media
Explanation: Newcomb’s ABX model of communication focuses on the relationship between two persons (A and B) and an object/topic (X); the medium is not central to his model. Hence (C).
Q17. What is one of the following most important factors to make communication effective?
(A) Media
(B) Message
(C) Sender
(D) Immediate feedback
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Immediate feedback
Explanation: Immediate feedback confirms whether the message was understood and lets the sender adjust, making communication effective. Hence (D).
Q18. A supervisor in a factory orders workers and the workers follow the order. This is …………… type of communication.
(A) Vertical
(B) Horizontal
(C) Non-formal
(D) Distance
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Vertical
Explanation: Communication flowing from a higher level (supervisor) down to a lower level (workers) is vertical (downward) communication. Hence (A).
Q19. Unattentiveness of the receiver may affect …………… .
(A) Sender
(B) Message
(C) Media
(D) Effectiveness of communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Effectiveness of communication
Explanation: If the receiver is inattentive, the message is not properly received or understood, which reduces the effectiveness of communication. Hence (D).
Q20. Programmes on TV channels sometimes mislead society because …………… .
(A) Audiences are in large numbers
(B) Audiences are illiterate
(C) Audience group is heterogeneous
(D) Difference in sender and receivers’ perception
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Audience group is heterogeneous
Explanation: The TV audience is heterogeneous — varied in background and understanding — so the same programme is interpreted differently by different viewers, which can mislead. Hence (C).
Q21. Consider a road map of a city with 5 approach roads from other places, 10 junctions, and no internal road has a dead-end. Every junction except one is associated with 4 roads. If n roads are associated with the remaining junction, which value is impossible for n?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 6
Explanation: Treating junctions and external connections as a graph, the sum of all road-ends (degrees) must be even (handshaking lemma). With 9 junctions of degree 4 (sum 36) plus the 5 approach roads contributing odd parity, the remaining junction’s degree n must have a parity that keeps the total even; the value that violates this parity requirement among the options is 6. Hence (C). (This is a graph-parity item; the keyed impossible value is 6.)
Q22. An honest person guaranteed to two different persons X and Y individually to hand over the complete amount available in his unique purse. In which situation will he fulfil his assurance to both X and Y at the same time?
(A) If there is no money in his purse
(B) By paying each one of them half of the money available in the purse
(C) By paying nothing to anyone of them
(D) In the purse the number of notes/coins of same amount is even
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) If there is no money in his purse
Explanation: He promised the complete amount to each. The only way to give the ‘complete amount’ to both simultaneously and keep his word is if the complete amount is zero — i.e. there is no money in the purse. Hence (A).
Q23. Immediately after 12 o’clock, at what time duration do both the minute hand and the hour hand of a watch exactly overlap?
(A) One hour
(B) One hour five minutes
(C) After 1 hour five minutes and before one hour six minutes
(D) After one hour six minutes
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) After 1 hour five minutes and before one hour six minutes
Explanation: After 12:00 the hands next coincide at 12:00 + 60/11 minutes past 1, i.e. about 1 hour 5.45 minutes. That is after 1 hour 5 minutes but before 1 hour 6 minutes. Hence (C).
Q24. As the price of a book is reduced by 20%, its consumption increases by 25%. What percentage difference is there in the previous income (expenditure)?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 0
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 0
Explanation: New expenditure factor = (1 − 0.20) × (1 + 0.25) = 0.8 × 1.25 = 1.0, exactly the same as before. So the difference is 0%. Hence (D).
Q25. The percentage profit earned by selling an item for Rs. 2120 is the same as the percentage loss incurred by selling it for Rs. 1480. At what price should the item be sold to get 20% profit?
(A) 2160
(B) 2200
(C) 2050
(D) 1900
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 2160
Explanation: Equal profit% and loss% give cost price = (2120 + 1480)/2 = Rs. 1800. For 20% profit, selling price = 1800 × 1.20 = Rs. 2160. Hence (A).
Q26. Arrange the following terms in a meaningful logical order: 1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death 4. Unemployment 5. Disease
(A) 4—2—1—5—3
(B) 2—4—1—5—3
(C) 1—5—2—4—3
(D) 5—1—4—2—3
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 2—4—1—5—3
Explanation: A logical causal chain: Population (growth) → Unemployment → Poverty → Disease → Death, i.e. 2-4-1-5-3. Hence (B).
Q27. If QTXL in a code means OPTG, then in the same code what does GKNS mean?
(A) EIJO
(B) FIKN
(C) EHJN
(D) FEHJ
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) EHJN
Explanation: Each letter is shifted back by an increasing amount: Q−2=O, T−4=P, X−4=T, L−5=G. Applying the same shifts (−2, −3, −4, −5) to GKNS: G−2=E, K−3=H, N−4=J, S−5=N, giving EHJN. Hence (C).
Q28. By drinking Bornvita with water gives energy; drinking Complan with water gives energy; drinking milk with water gives energy. Therefore, by drinking water one gets energy. This is an example of …………… .
(A) Invariable relation
(B) Fallacy
(C) Perception
(D) Comparison
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Fallacy
Explanation: The conclusion wrongly credits the common ingredient (water) with the energy that actually comes from the other items. This faulty reasoning is a fallacy. Hence (B).
Q29. Statement I: All birds are white. Statement II: All parrots are birds. Conclusion 1: Some birds are white. Conclusion 2: Some parrots are white. Conclusion 3: All parrots are green. Conclusion 4: Some birds are not white. Which is/are valid?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: All birds are white, so certainly some birds are white (1 follows). All parrots are birds and all birds are white, so all parrots are white, hence some parrots are white (2 follows). Conclusion 3 contradicts this, and conclusion 4 contradicts statement I. So only 1 and 2 follow. Hence (A).
Q30. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship among the three terms — Athletes, Women, Mothers?
(A) Three concentric circles
(B) Athletes partly overlapping Women, with Mothers inside Women
(C) Three separate circles
(D) Three fully overlapping circles
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Athletes partly overlapping Women, with Mothers inside Women
Explanation: Some athletes are women (partial overlap of Athletes and Women), and all mothers are women (Mothers wholly inside Women); a mother can also be an athlete, so Mothers overlaps the Athletes–Women intersection. The correct figure has Mothers within Women and Athletes overlapping Women. Hence (B).
Q31. In which year is the percentage of passing of students maximum?
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 2015
Explanation: Pass percentages: 2012 = 200/500 = 40%; 2013 = 400/700 ≈ 57.1%; 2014 = 500/800 = 62.5%; 2015 = 700/1000 = 70%. The maximum is in 2015. Hence (D).
Q32. The percentage of passing of students for all the years 2012 to 2015 combined together is …………… .
(A) 50
(B) 57.14
(C) 60
(D) 70
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 60
Explanation: Total passed = 200 + 400 + 500 + 700 = 1800; total students = 500 + 700 + 800 + 1000 = 3000. Combined pass % = 1800/3000 × 100 = 60%. Hence (C).
Q33. Arithmetic mean of 12 observations is 40. The smallest and largest observations are 20 and 60. If we ignore the smallest and largest, the arithmetic mean of the remaining observations …………… .
(A) will increase
(B) will decrease
(C) will not change
(D) cannot be obtained due to insufficient data
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) will not change
Explanation: Total of 12 observations = 12 × 40 = 480. Removing 20 and 60 removes 80, leaving 400 over 10 observations, mean = 400/10 = 40 — the same as before. So the mean will not change. Hence (C).
Q34. How many players are playing only one game?
(A) 102
(B) 80
(C) 61
(D) 63
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 61
Explanation: Only cricket = 35 − (8 + 10 − 3) = 35 − 15 = 20; only hockey = 42 − (8 + 7 − 3) = 42 − 12 = 30; only football = 25 − (10 + 7 − 3) = 25 − 14 = 11. Sum = 20 + 30 + 11 = 61. Hence (C).
Q35. How many players play exactly two games?
(A) 19
(B) 61
(C) 80
(D) 16
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 16
Explanation: Exactly two = (cricket&hockey − all) + (cricket&football − all) + (hockey&football − all) = (8−3) + (10−3) + (7−3) = 5 + 7 + 4 = 16. Hence (D).
Q36. Which of the following is the correct full form of ERNET?
(A) Entertainment and Recreational Network
(B) Entertainment and Refreshment Network
(C) Educational Reference Network
(D) Educational and Research Network
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Educational and Research Network
Explanation: ERNET stands for the Education and Research Network, India’s academic and research computer network. Hence (D).
Q37. Who helped late Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in revolutionizing India’s telecommunication policy?
(A) Nandan Nilekani
(B) Sam Pitroda
(C) G. Parthasarathi
(D) A. Raja
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Sam Pitroda
Explanation: Sam Pitroda advised Rajiv Gandhi and played a leading role in India’s telecommunications revolution (C-DOT, public call offices). Hence (B).
Q38. Which among the following is basically an instant messenger?
(A) Facebook
(B) Instagram
(C) Twitter
(D) WhatsApp
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) WhatsApp
Explanation: WhatsApp is fundamentally an instant messaging application. Facebook, Instagram and Twitter are social-networking platforms. Hence (D).
Q39. ‘Sarathi’ is the web portal of …………… .
(A) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(B) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(C) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(D) Ministry of Rural Development
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Explanation: ‘Sarathi’ is the web portal of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, used for driving licence and related services. Hence (C).
Q40. ‘BYOD’ in the context of digital initiatives in higher education in India is …………… .
(A) Be Youthful On Digital
(B) Buy Your Own Device
(C) Bring Your Own Device
(D) Be Yourself On Digital
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Bring Your Own Device
Explanation: BYOD stands for ‘Bring Your Own Device’, a policy allowing learners to use their personal devices for digital learning. Hence (C).
Q41. Presence of E. coli in water is an indicator of …………… contamination.
(A) Sewage
(B) Oil
(C) Pesticide
(D) Herbicide
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Sewage
Explanation: E. coli is a faecal-origin bacterium, so its presence in water indicates sewage (faecal) contamination. Hence (A).
Q42. During day time, noise pollution in a residential area should not exceed …………… .
(A) 75 dB
(B) 55 dB
(C) 65 dB
(D) 80 dB
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 55 dB
Explanation: The prescribed daytime noise limit for residential areas in India is 55 dB. Hence (B).
Q43. To regulate and control the transboundary movement of hazardous waste is also known as …………… .
(A) Basel convention
(B) CITES
(C) Ramsar convention
(D) Wetland convention
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Basel convention
Explanation: The Basel Convention controls the transboundary (cross-border) movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal. Hence (A).
Q44. There are a number of Acts in India to prevent and control pollution. Which one is known as the ‘Comprehensive/Umbrella Act’?
(A) Air Pollution Act
(B) Water Pollution Act
(C) Environment (Protection) Act
(D) Liability Act
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Environment (Protection) Act
Explanation: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is the umbrella legislation covering all aspects of environmental protection. Hence (C).
Q45. How many goals have been set for sustainable development by the UN to achieve social and economic development?
(A) 20
(B) 17
(C) 10
(D) 16
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 17
Explanation: The United Nations has set 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Hence (B).
Q46. Which of the following universities was the centre of military education during the Vedic period?
(A) Takshashila
(B) Nalanda
(C) Gunsheela
(D) Kundinpur
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Takshashila
Explanation: Takshashila (Taxila) was a renowned ancient centre of learning, including military education and the art of warfare. Hence (A).
Q47. ‘Minimum period for Ph.D. should be of two years and there should be a viva-voce examination for the Ph.D. degree.’ This recommendation was made by …………… .
(A) Indian University Commission
(B) Sadler Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Radhakrishnan Commission
Explanation: The Radhakrishnan Commission (University Education Commission, 1948–49) made recommendations on Ph.D. duration and the viva-voce examination. Hence (C).
Q48. Teacher education is …………… .
(A) Professional education
(B) Vocational education
(C) Technical education
(D) Skill education
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Professional education
Explanation: Teacher education prepares people for the teaching profession, so it is a form of professional education. Hence (A).
Q49. The nomenclature of the education department of India was changed to Human Resource Development in the year …………… .
(A) 1975
(B) 1986
(C) 1995
(D) 2005
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 1986
Explanation: In 1985 the Ministry of Education was reorganised as the Ministry of Human Resource Development, with the change taking effect around 1985–86. Among the options, 1986 is the keyed answer. Hence (B).
Q50. Which of the following institutions does not fund research activities in higher education?
(A) DBT
(B) DST
(C) ICSSR
(D) NCTE
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) NCTE
Explanation: DBT (biotechnology), DST (science and technology) and ICSSR (social science) fund research. NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education) is a regulatory body for teacher education and does not fund research. Hence (D).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET September 2021 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
