MAH SET March 2023 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in March 2023. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. Problem solving methods are used by the teacher in …………… level of teaching.
(A) Memory
(B) Understanding
(C) Reflective
(D) Basic
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Reflective
Explanation: The reflective level of teaching engages learners in higher-order thinking, including problem solving and critical analysis. So problem-solving methods belong to the reflective level. Hence (C).
Q2. Feedback of classroom teaching from …………… is a valuable feedback for teachers.
(A) Students and Librarian
(B) Colleagues and Librarian
(C) Students and Parents
(D) Students and Colleagues
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Students and Colleagues
Explanation: The most valuable feedback on classroom teaching comes from those who directly observe it — the students who experience it and the colleagues (peers) who can assess pedagogy. Hence (D).
Q3. SWAYAM stands for …………… .
(A) School Webs of Action-Learning for Youth Aspiring Maps
(B) Study Websites of Action-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(C) School Websites of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiring Maps
(D) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
Explanation: SWAYAM stands for ‘Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds’, the national online education platform. Hence (D).
Q4. …………… is the more suitable method for teaching of History.
(A) Role Play Method
(B) Demonstration Method
(C) Experimentation Method
(D) Deductive Method
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Role Play Method
Explanation: History, being narrative and event-based, is well taught through role play, where students enact historical events and characters to understand them. Hence (A).
Q5. Learning process is monitored by …………… Evaluation.
(A) Diagnostic
(B) Placement
(C) Formative
(D) Summative
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Formative
Explanation: Formative evaluation takes place during the learning process to monitor progress and guide improvement. Summative evaluation comes at the end. Hence (C).
Q6. A researcher must have …………… .
(A) Attitude towards research
(B) Research aptitude
(C) Knowledge about research
(D) Mastery over own subject
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Research aptitude
Explanation: Research aptitude — the natural ability and capacity to carry out research — is the essential prerequisite that combines interest, reasoning and skill. Hence (B).
Q7. Recording of …………… in qualitative research is called memoing.
(A) Reflective notes
(B) Memory notes
(C) Understanding notes
(D) Research notes
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Reflective notes
Explanation: Memoing in qualitative research is the recording of reflective notes about emerging ideas and interpretations during analysis. Hence (A).
Q8. For detecting errors in the teaching-learning process, the appropriate data collection tool will be …………… .
(A) Achievement test
(B) Diagnostic test
(C) Standardized test
(D) Post-test
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Diagnostic test
Explanation: A diagnostic test is designed to identify specific errors, weaknesses and misconceptions in the teaching-learning process. Hence (B).
Q9. If a frequency distribution has some extreme scores, then the appropriate measure of variability will be …………… .
(A) Range
(B) Quartile Deviation
(C) Average Deviation
(D) Standard Deviation
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Quartile Deviation
Explanation: The quartile deviation, based on the middle 50% of data, is least affected by extreme scores, making it the appropriate measure of variability when outliers are present. Hence (B).
Q10. Standard of research journal is decided on …………… .
(A) Publisher
(B) Impact factor
(C) Citation Index
(D) Printing of the journal
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Impact factor
Explanation: A research journal’s standard/quality is commonly judged by its impact factor, reflecting how often its articles are cited. Hence (B).
Q11. The word that is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘defile’ is …………… .
(A) Sanctify
(B) Decry
(C) Devaluate
(D) Satiate
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Sanctify
Explanation: ‘Defile’ means to pollute or corrupt; its opposite is ‘sanctify’ — to make pure or holy. Hence (A).
Q12. The author of the passage suggests that the main purpose of political education should be …………… .
(A) Propagating elitism
(B) Changing the education system qualitatively
(C) Creating an egalitarian society
(D) Preparing the youth having high emotional quotient
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Creating an egalitarian society
Explanation: The passage states that the predominant socio-economic objectives are the abolition of poverty and the creation of an egalitarian society — the real aim of political education. Hence (C).
Q13. According to the passage, the close meaning of ‘connotation’ is …………… .
(A) Different meanings
(B) Invoked meanings
(C) Similar meanings
(D) Invited meanings
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Invoked meanings
Explanation: A connotation is an implied or associated (invoked) meaning that a word carries beyond its literal sense. Hence (B).
Q14. How has politics been related to educational institutions?
(A) There was no political interference even though they got political support
(B) There was neither political support nor political interference
(C) They got political support at the cost of political interference
(D) Without political support, there was quite a lot of political interference
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Without political support, there was quite a lot of political interference
Explanation: The passage says academicians wanted political support without interference, but what they actually received was infinite political interference with little genuine political support. Hence (D).
Q15. In the passage, ‘Hands off education’ suggests that politicians should …………… .
(A) Interfere with the education system
(B) Protect the education system
(C) Be silent spectators of the educational system
(D) Produce working hands
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Be silent spectators of the educational system
Explanation: ‘Hands off education’ was a call to political parties to keep away from and not interfere in education — to remain silent spectators rather than meddle. Hence (C).
Q16. In any organization, information is shared among all the members. This type of communication is …………… .
(A) Internal
(B) External
(C) Upward
(D) Downward
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Internal
Explanation: Communication taking place among members within the organisation is internal communication. Hence (A).
Q17. Cultural difference between sender and receiver may affect …………… .
(A) Message
(B) Media
(C) Effectiveness of communication
(D) Feedback
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Effectiveness of communication
Explanation: Cultural differences create barriers to shared understanding, reducing the effectiveness of communication. Hence (C).
Q18. According to ……………, communication means a transfer of understandable information between two persons.
(A) F.G. Meyer
(B) G.G. Brown
(C) Dr. Deval
(D) Millar
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) G.G. Brown
Explanation: This definition of communication as the transfer of understandable information between two persons is attributed to G.G. Brown. Hence (B).
Q19. Effective communication may be shown by …………… (where MS = message sent by sender, MR = message received by receiver).
(A) MS − MR = 0
(B) MR − MS = 0
(C) MS − MR = +1
(D) MR − MS = −1
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) MS − MR = 0
Explanation: Communication is fully effective when the message received equals the message sent, i.e. MS = MR, so MS − MR = 0. Hence (A).
Q20. The element which badly affects the effectiveness of communication is called …………… .
(A) Feedback
(B) Projection
(C) Message
(D) Noise
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Noise
Explanation: Noise is any interference or disturbance that distorts the message and reduces the effectiveness of communication. Hence (D).
Q21. The number of eight-bit computer words formed by 0s and 1s with exactly three 1s and five 0s is:
(A) 15
(B) 56
(C) 65
(D) 30
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 56
Explanation: This is the number of ways to choose 3 positions (for the 1s) out of 8, i.e. C(8,3) = 8!/(3!5!) = 56. Hence (B).
Q22. Committees: X1 = {a,b,c,d}, X2 = {x,b,d,y}, X3 = {x,y,a}, X4 = {y,b}, X5 = {x,a,b}, X6 = {y,a,b}, X7 = {x,y,a,b}. In how many ways can we select representatives so that no two committees have the same representative?
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 0
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 0
Explanation: There are 7 committees but the total pool of distinct members is {a, b, c, d, x, y} — only 6 people. By the pigeonhole principle, 7 committees cannot all have distinct representatives, so the number of ways is 0. Hence (D).
Q23. In a rectangular arrangement of persons in four rows of four, the person in position (i, j) moves to the place of the person at (j, i) for all i, j. How many persons have changed their original position?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 12
(D) 16
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 12
Explanation: Person (i, j) stays put only when i = j (the diagonal positions): (1,1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4) — 4 people. The other 16 − 4 = 12 people change position. Hence (C).
Q24. A water tank fills in 6 hours with the first tap and in 12 hours with another tap. If both taps are turned on simultaneously, how long will it take to fill a vacant tank?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 3 hours 30 minutes
(C) 4 hours
(D) 4 hours 30 minutes
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 4 hours
Explanation: Combined rate = 1/6 + 1/12 = 2/12 + 1/12 = 3/12 = 1/4 tank per hour. So time = 4 hours. Hence (C).
Q25. If X gets 10% points higher than Y, then by what percentage does Y get fewer points than X?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 9 1/11 (≈9.09)
(D) 11 1/11
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 9 1/11 (≈9.09)
Explanation: Let Y = 100, then X = 110. Y is less than X by 10 points out of X’s 110, i.e. (10/110) × 100 = 9 1/11 % ≈ 9.09%. Hence (C).
Q26. In a running race Rani was behind Shobha, who was ahead of Aditi. Rehana was behind Aditi and ahead of Rani. Which is the correct order from front to back?
(A) Aditi-Shobha-Rani-Rehana
(B) Shobha-Aditi-Rehana-Rani
(C) Shobha-Rehana-Aditi-Rani
(D) Rani-Shobha-Rehana-Aditi
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Shobha-Aditi-Rehana-Rani
Explanation: Shobha is ahead of Aditi; Aditi is ahead of Rehana; Rehana is ahead of Rani. So front to back: Shobha, Aditi, Rehana, Rani. Hence (B).
Q27. Arrange the following in a meaningful/logical order: (1) Windows (2) Walls (3) Floor (4) Foundation (5) Roof (6) Room
(A) 3–2–4–1–6–5
(B) 2–3–1–4–5–6
(C) 4–2–1–5–3–6
(D) 4–3–2–1–6
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 4–2–1–5–3–6
Explanation: Construction sequence: Foundation → Walls → Windows → Roof → Floor → Room (completed). That is 4-2-1-5-3-6. Hence (C).
Q28. ‘Horse is a herbivorous animal.’ This statement is an example of …………… .
(A) Perception
(B) Inference
(C) Comparison
(D) Implication
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Inference
Explanation: Classifying a horse as herbivorous is a conclusion drawn from general knowledge about its feeding, which is an inference. Hence (B).
Q29. Statement I: Some animals are intelligent. Statement II: Intelligent animals are monkeys. Conclusion 1: All monkeys are intelligent. Conclusion 2: Horses are intelligent. Which is valid?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: From the premises we cannot conclude that all monkeys are intelligent (the statement runs the other way), nor that horses are intelligent (horses are not mentioned). Neither conclusion follows. Hence (D).
Q30. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship among the terms: Entrepreneurs, Married, Women?
(A) Three concentric circles
(B) Three mutually overlapping circles
(C) Three separate circles
(D) Two overlapping plus one separate
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Three mutually overlapping circles
Explanation: A person can be any combination of entrepreneur, married and woman — e.g. a married woman entrepreneur, or a married male entrepreneur, etc. Since the three categories partly overlap without full containment, three mutually intersecting circles represent them. Hence (B).
Q31. For which type of industry is the difference between the companies of districts E and B maximum?
(A) Engineering and allied
(B) Agro-based
(C) Chemical-based
(D) Textile-based
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Engineering and allied
Explanation: E − B differences: Agro 165−86 = 79; Forest 120−70 = 50; Livestock 176−90 = 86; Textile 132−92 = 40; Chemical 154−86 = 68; Engineering 166−76 = 90. The maximum difference (90) is for Engineering and allied. Hence (A).
Q32. What is the percentage of agro-based industries in district B?
(A) 86%
(B) 17.2%
(C) 8.6%
(D) 16.67%
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 17.2%
Explanation: District B has 86 agro-based companies out of a district total of 500. 86/500 × 100 = 17.2%. Hence (B).
Q33. In a certain state 60% are married employees and 52% are graduate employees. 32% are neither married nor graduate. Find the percentage of married and graduate employees.
(A) 8%
(B) 28%
(C) 24%
(D) 44%
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 44%
Explanation: Those who are married or graduate (or both) = 100% − 32% = 68%. By inclusion–exclusion, both = (married + graduate) − (married or graduate) = (60 + 52) − 68 = 112 − 68 = 44%. Hence (D).
Q34. Find the angle in degrees associated with the sector ‘Other’.
(A) 63°
(B) 90°
(C) 108°
(D) 72°
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 90°
Explanation: The angles must sum to 360°. Other = 360 − (108 + 63 + 72 + 27) = 360 − 270 = 90°. Hence (B).
Q35. Find the percentage of expenses on the sector ‘Food’.
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 20%
(D) 90%
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 30%
Explanation: Food’s angle is 108°. As a percentage of the full circle: 108/360 × 100 = 30%. Hence (B).
Q36. Which of the following is the correct full form of HTML?
(A) Hyper Text Mandatory Language
(B) Hyper Text Mix Language
(C) Hyper Text Mark-up Language
(D) Hyper Text Media Language
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Hyper Text Mark-up Language
Explanation: HTML stands for HyperText Mark-up Language, used to structure web pages. Hence (C).
Q37. Internet access to the common public in India was first introduced in …………… .
(A) 1995
(B) 1986
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 1995
Explanation: Public internet access in India was launched by VSNL in 1995. Hence (A).
Q38. Which among the following is most helpful to type in regional languages on smart phones?
(A) Typewriter
(B) Honey code
(C) Unicode
(D) Multimedia
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Unicode
Explanation: Unicode is the universal character-encoding standard that supports regional-language scripts across devices, making it most helpful for typing in regional languages. Hence (C).
Q39. Which among the following is the digital payment app linked to Google?
(A) PayTM
(B) BHIM
(C) Tez
(D) MobiKwik
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Tez
Explanation: Google’s digital payment app in India was launched as ‘Tez’ (later rebranded Google Pay). Hence (C).
Q40. Which among the following is the consortia for higher education e-resources linked to the digital initiatives?
(A) e-Shodh Ganga
(B) e-Shodh Sindhu
(C) e-Shodh Yamuna
(D) e-Shodh Saraswati
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) e-Shodh Sindhu
Explanation: e-ShodhSindhu is the consortium providing access to e-resources (journals and databases) for higher education institutions. (ShodhGanga is the theses repository.) Hence (B).
Q41. Kyoto Protocol is for:
(A) Biodiversity conservation
(B) Ozone protection
(C) Wildlife protection
(D) Global climate change
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Global climate change
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement to reduce greenhouse-gas emissions and combat global climate change. Hence (D).
Q42. Which one of the natural systems is used for hot water for domestic purposes?
(A) Solar-Thermal
(B) Solar-Photovoltaic
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Solar-digestor
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Solar-Thermal
Explanation: Solar-thermal systems (solar water heaters) capture the sun’s heat to warm water for domestic use. (Photovoltaic converts light to electricity, not heat.) Hence (A).
Q43. Excess growth of aquatic plants in our water bodies is due to …………… .
(A) Increase in Nitrates
(B) Increase in Phosphates
(C) Increase in Nitrate and phosphates
(D) Sodium
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Increase in Nitrate and phosphates
Explanation: Eutrophication and the excessive growth of aquatic plants/algae are caused by nutrient enrichment, chiefly increases in nitrates and phosphates. Hence (C).
Q44. Which one of the following air pollutants is responsible for acid rain?
(A) SO2
(B) CO2
(C) CO
(D) Ozone
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) SO2
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide (SO2), along with oxides of nitrogen, reacts with atmospheric moisture to form acids, causing acid rain. Hence (A).
Q45. Wet part of municipal solid waste can be put to use as soil conditioners by using:
(A) Composting
(B) Pyrolysis
(C) Burning
(D) Incineration
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Composting
Explanation: The wet, biodegradable fraction of municipal waste can be composted into nutrient-rich material used as a soil conditioner. Hence (A).
Q46. In the Mughal period, higher education learning centres were known as …………… .
(A) Maqtabs
(B) Madarasas
(C) Khajkais
(D) Arabi schools
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Madarasas
Explanation: During the Mughal period, higher education was imparted in madarasas, while elementary education was given in maqtabs. Hence (B).
Q47. RUSA scheme is launched mainly to provide …………… .
(A) Affordable higher education to all
(B) Quality higher education to all
(C) Funding to state level higher education
(D) Funding to researches in colleges
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Funding to state level higher education
Explanation: RUSA (Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan) is a centrally sponsored scheme that provides funding to state higher education institutions. Hence (C).
Q48. The science that deals with the relationship of various organisms with their environment is known as …………… .
(A) Anthropology
(B) Economics
(C) Ecology
(D) Geology
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Ecology
Explanation: Ecology is the branch of science that studies the relationships of organisms with one another and with their environment. Hence (C).
Q49. UGC has introduced an induction course for teachers in higher education to …………… .
(A) Enrich the content knowledge
(B) Prepare for teaching
(C) Refresh knowledge
(D) Develop attitude
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Prepare for teaching
Explanation: The induction course is meant to orient and prepare newly appointed teachers for the teaching profession. (Refresher courses serve to refresh knowledge.) Hence (B).
Q50. ‘SWAYAM’ programme platform is developed for …………… .
(A) Technical subjects
(B) Humanity subjects
(C) Management subjects
(D) All the above subjects
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) All the above subjects
Explanation: SWAYAM offers online courses across all disciplines — technical, humanities, management and more. Hence (D).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET March 2023 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
