MAH SET April 2024 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in April 2024. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. If taught on the memory level of teaching, the students get tremendous power for acquisition of …………… : (i) factual information (ii) generalized insight (iii) problem solving abilities
(A) Only (ii)
(B) Only (i)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Only (i)
Explanation: Memory-level teaching, the lowest level, deals with rote acquisition of facts. It develops the power to acquire factual information (i), but not generalized insight (which belongs to the understanding level) or problem-solving abilities (the reflective level). Hence (B).
Q2. The teacher should choose a teaching method considering …………… : (i) Nature of the learners (ii) Nature of the objectives to be realized (iii) The teacher’s own ability and proficiency
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (ii)
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: An appropriate teaching method depends on the learners, the objectives to be achieved and the teacher’s own competence to use the method effectively. All three factors apply. Hence (C).
Q3. What is the main characteristic of gifted students?
(A) They are introvert in nature
(B) They are dependent on their peers
(C) They are extrovert in nature
(D) They are independent in their judgement
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) They are independent in their judgement
Explanation: A defining trait of gifted learners is independence of thought — they form their own judgements rather than relying on peers, and are not defined by being introvert or extrovert. Hence (D).
Q4. For adult learners, instruction needs to focus …………… .
(A) equally on the process and the content to be taught
(B) less on the process and more on the content to be taught
(C) more on the process and less on the content to be taught
(D) equally on the process and the product of learning
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) more on the process and less on the content to be taught
Explanation: Adult learning (andragogy) is self-directed and experience-based, so instruction should emphasise the process of learning (how adults engage, reflect and apply) more than mere content delivery. Hence (C).
Q5. …………… evaluation gives a clear idea about understanding of the student regarding particular content.
(A) Placement
(B) Formative
(C) Summative
(D) Diagnostic
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Formative
Explanation: Formative evaluation, conducted during instruction, gives ongoing insight into how well a student understands the particular content, allowing timely correction. Hence (B).
Q6. …………… is the characteristic of qualitative research.
(A) Emphasis on numerical data
(B) Focus on statistical analysis
(C) In-depth exploration of meanings and experiences
(D) Strict adherence to experimental designs
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) In-depth exploration of meanings and experiences
Explanation: Qualitative research seeks deep understanding of meanings, experiences and processes rather than numerical measurement or statistical testing. Hence (C).
Q7. …………… is a limitation of positivism in research.
(A) It ignores the importance of empirical evidence
(B) It tends to oversimplify complex social phenomenon
(C) It places too much emphasis on subjective interpretations
(D) It encourages bias and personal opinions in research
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) It tends to oversimplify complex social phenomenon
Explanation: Positivism’s insistence on measurable, objective facts can reduce rich, complex social realities to oversimplified variables, which is a key limitation. (It actually stresses empirical evidence and objectivity, so A, C and D mischaracterise it.) Hence (B).
Q8. …………… is referred to as ‘citation’ in academic writing.
(A) A reference to the author’s personal experiences
(B) A way of giving proper credit to the original source of information
(C) A fictional element added to enhance the narrative
(D) A personal opinion included without supporting evidence
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) A way of giving proper credit to the original source of information
Explanation: A citation acknowledges and gives credit to the original source of information or ideas used in one’s writing. Hence (B).
Q9. …………… type of research misconduct involves making up or falsifying data.
(A) Plagiarism
(B) Fabrication
(C) Misinterpretation
(D) Biased sampling
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Fabrication
Explanation: Fabrication is the research misconduct of making up or falsifying data or results. (Plagiarism is using others’ work without credit.) Hence (B).
Q10. …………… ICT tool is essential for creating and managing bibliographies in research papers.
(A) Statistical software
(B) Reference management software
(C) Spreadsheet software
(D) Project management software
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Reference management software
Explanation: Reference management software (e.g. EndNote, Zotero, Mendeley) is designed to create, organise and format bibliographies and citations. Hence (B).
Q11. The given passage states that Mahatma Gandhi largely succeeded in …………… .
(A) fighting against the social discrimination in India
(B) eradicating economic inequalities in India
(C) moulding the millions in India
(D) giving political representation to Indians
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) moulding the millions in India
Explanation: The passage says that through nation-wide action Gandhi sought to mould the millions and largely succeeded in doing so. Hence (C).
Q12. What do you understand by the phrase ‘to be rid of’?
(A) Released/freed from something
(B) Tied to something
(C) Increased something
(D) Included something
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Released/freed from something
Explanation: ‘To be rid of’ means to be freed or released from something (here, the burdens of the people). Hence (A).
Q13. What did Mahatma Gandhi represent?
(A) Poverty of India
(B) Working class movement in India
(C) The natural historical stage of development of India
(D) The spirit and honour of India
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) The spirit and honour of India
Explanation: The passage states that to the people Gandhi represented the spirit and honour of India and the yearning of her millions. Hence (D).
Q14. The main contribution of Gandhi to India has been …………… .
(A) strong arguments
(B) the powerful movements
(C) vociferous speeches
(D) intermittent fasts
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) the powerful movements
Explanation: The passage states that Gandhi’s main contribution to India and the Indian masses was through the powerful movements he launched through the National Congress. Hence (B).
Q15. What is the correct meaning of the term ‘bourgeois’?
(A) Working class with utilitarian values
(B) Agrarian class with moral values
(C) Middle class with conventional, conservative and materialistic values
(D) Lower class with no fixed values
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Middle class with conventional, conservative and materialistic values
Explanation: ‘Bourgeois’ refers to the middle class, typically associated with conventional, conservative and materialistic values. Hence (C).
Q16. Which of the following messages is less likely to be misunderstood or misinterpreted due to the cultural or linguistic background of the receivers?
(A) message full of written words
(B) message full of spoken words
(C) message full of body-gestures
(D) message full of iconic signs
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) message full of iconic signs
Explanation: Iconic signs resemble what they represent (like pictures/symbols), so they are understood across languages and cultures with the least misinterpretation. Words and culture-bound gestures vary by background. Hence (D).
Q17. In the context of contemporary digital parlance, what are the following symbols collectively called: : – ) : – ( ; – ) : – ×
(A) Emoji
(B) Emoticons
(C) Smiley
(D) Stickers
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Emoticons
Explanation: These are emoticons — facial expressions formed from keyboard characters (punctuation and letters). Emoji, by contrast, are pictographic images. Hence (B).
Q18. In the context of non-verbal communication, identify the incorrect statement:
(A) Silence is a means of communication
(B) Non-verbal cues and messages are easy to control
(C) Non-verbal messages are culture sensitive and relative
(D) In case of confusion, people tend to trust non-verbal communication more than the verbal
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Non-verbal cues and messages are easy to control
Explanation: Non-verbal cues (expressions, tone, body language) are largely involuntary and hard to control, so saying they are easy to control (B) is incorrect. The other statements are true. Hence (B).
Q19. What is Prasar Bharati?
(A) It is the national level news channel under Doordarshan
(B) It is a news broadcasting service of All India Radio (AIR)
(C) It is the association of private broadcasters in India
(D) It is India’s state owned Public Broadcaster
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) It is India’s state owned Public Broadcaster
Explanation: Prasar Bharati is India’s autonomous, state-owned public service broadcaster, running Doordarshan and All India Radio. Hence (D).
Q20. Which of the following elements is facilitated much more in a communicative situation where teacher and students sit together in a circular manner facing each other?
(A) effectiveness of the content of teaching
(B) teacher’s power to control every student
(C) discipline amongst the students
(D) level of interactions between the students
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) level of interactions between the students
Explanation: A circular seating arrangement gives everyone eye contact and equal footing, greatly increasing interaction among the students. Hence (D).
Q21. What is the arithmetic mean of the integers from 1 to 51?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 26
Explanation: For consecutive integers, the mean is the middle value: (1 + 51)/2 = 26. Hence (C).
Q22. If 10^m (m a positive integer) divides the product of the integers from 101 to 151, then the maximum value of m is:
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 11
(D) 10
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 13
Explanation: 10^m = 2^m × 5^m, so m is limited by the number of factors of 5 (fewer than factors of 2). Counting factors of 5 in 101×102×…×151: the multiples of 5 contribute 10, and 125 (= 5³) and 150 contribute extra, giving 13 fives in total. So the maximum m is 13. Hence (B).
Q23. Among X = 188181811881, Y = 881181811818, Z = 811881188118, which numbers are divisible by 18?
(A) X only
(B) Y and Z only
(C) Z only
(D) X, Y and Z
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Y and Z only
Explanation: Divisibility by 18 requires divisibility by both 2 and 9. All three have a digit sum divisible by 9, but X ends in 1 (odd), so it is not divisible by 2. Y and Z end in even digits, so only Y and Z are divisible by 18. Hence (B).
Q24. A person transfers bricks from place X to place Y, 200 metres apart, carrying 15 bricks at a time. Starting from X, after travelling 5.5 km while working, how many bricks were shifted to Y?
(A) 190
(B) 195
(C) 210
(D) 215
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 210
Explanation: Each delivery is 200 m to Y plus 200 m back = 400 m per round trip (15 bricks delivered), except the final trip needs no return. In 5500 m: 13 full round trips = 5200 m deliver 13 × 15 = 195 bricks; the remaining 300 m covers one more one-way trip to Y (200 m), delivering 15 more, for 210 bricks. Hence (C).
Q25. There are 64 deer in a forest in the present year. If x(n) is the number of deer in year n and x(n) = (3/2)·x(n−1), how many deer are there in the 5th year?
(A) 96
(B) 486
(C) 243
(D) 339
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 486
Explanation: Each year the count multiplies by 3/2: 64 → 96 → 144 → 216 → 324 → 486 over five steps. So in the 5th year there are 486 deer. Hence (B).
Q26. Statement I: Some tigers are goats. Statement II: All political leaders are intelligent. Conclusion 1: Some goats are not tigers. Conclusion 2: Some political leaders are intelligent. Which is/are valid?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Since all political leaders are intelligent, certainly some political leaders are intelligent — conclusion 2 follows. From ‘some tigers are goats’ we cannot conclude ‘some goats are not tigers’ (that is not necessitated). So only conclusion 2 follows. Hence (B).
Q27. Some buses face the bus stand. Thane bus was ahead of Nasik bus, which was ahead of Jalgaon bus. Amravati bus was behind Dhule bus but ahead of Thane bus. Which is the second last bus from behind?
(A) Thane
(B) Jalgaon
(C) Nasik
(D) Amravati
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Nasik
Explanation: Order from front: Dhule, Amravati, Thane, Nasik, Jalgaon. From behind, the last is Jalgaon and the second last is Nasik. Hence (C).
Q28. In a code language, if JKLM is coded as OSVX, then how will DEFG be coded in the same language?
(A) ILNQ
(B) JLNP
(C) KMOR
(D) IMPR
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) IMPR
Explanation: The letters are shifted forward by increasing amounts: J+5=O, K+8=S, L+10=V, M+11=X. Applying +5, +8, +10, +11 to DEFG: D+5=I, E+8=M, F+10=P, G+11=R, giving IMPR. Hence (D).
Q29. In a code language, if DAC means 635, then what will be the code for FEG?
(A) 879
(B) 678
(C) 587
(D) 897
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 879
Explanation: Each letter maps to its alphabet position plus 2: D(4)+2=6, A(1)+2=3, C(3)+2=5, giving 635. Applying to FEG: F(6)+2=8, E(5)+2=7, G(7)+2=9, giving 879. Hence (A).
Q30. Facing south, Virat walks 15 m, turns right and walks 10 m, turns right and walks 15 m, then turns left and walks 15 m. Which direction is he facing now and how far from the starting point?
(A) East, 15 meters
(B) West, 25 meters
(C) North, 15 meters
(D) South, 40 meters
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) West, 25 meters
Explanation: Starting at the origin and facing south: 15 m south, then (right) 10 m west, then (right) 15 m north, then (left) 15 m west. The north and south cancel, leaving him 10 + 15 = 25 m west of the start, facing west. Hence (B).
Q31. What is the percentage of the total number of tourists visiting Agra?
(A) 33.33%
(B) 25.00%
(C) 16.67%
(D) 10.00%
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 25.00%
Explanation: Agra had 15.0 lakh tourists out of a grand total of 60.0 lakh. 15/60 × 100 = 25%. Hence (B).
Q32. Which type of tourists is found maximum at Delhi?
(A) American
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Other
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) English
Explanation: At Delhi the figures are American 8.2, English 8.7, French 2.7, Other 0.4 (lakh). The maximum is English at 8.7. Hence (B).
Q33. The information in the table is represented using a pie diagram. What will be the angle of the sector representing item Labour?
(A) 50°
(B) 30°
(C) 90°
(D) 25°
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 90°
Explanation: Labour is 25% of the total. Its sector angle = 25% of 360° = 0.25 × 360 = 90°. Hence (C).
Q34. What is the ratio of expenditure on Cement and Bricks to the total expenditure on construction?
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 3 : 10
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 3 : 10
Explanation: Cement and Bricks is 30% of the total, i.e. 30 : 100, which simplifies to 3 : 10. Hence (D).
Q35. The (X, Y) points (1,60), (2,30), (3,20), (4,15), (5,12) are plotted and joined by a smooth curve. What will be the nature of the curve?
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Exponential curve
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Hyperbola
Explanation: For every point, X × Y = 60 (a constant), which is the equation of a rectangular hyperbola (Y = 60/X). So the curve is a hyperbola. Hence (C).
Q36. Identify the correct pair from the following:
(A) Pxl – unit of focus of digital cameras
(B) HDD – unit of high definition of digital screens
(C) Kbps – unit of data transfer rate
(D) Ghz – unit of memory storage on digital devices
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Kbps – unit of data transfer rate
Explanation: Kbps (kilobits per second) is indeed a unit of data transfer rate. A pixel is a picture element (not a focus unit), HDD is a hard disk drive (not a screen-definition unit), and GHz measures processor frequency (not memory storage). Hence (C).
Q37. When you access a site with ‘https’ instead of ‘http’ in the address bar, it primarily means:
(A) You are accessing a speedy connection
(B) You are accessing a secure communication
(C) You are accessing a single date line transfer
(D) You are accessing a smartphone friendly website
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) You are accessing a secure communication
Explanation: The ‘s’ in https stands for ‘secure’ — the connection is encrypted, providing secure communication. Hence (B).
Q38. Which of the following shows the correct chronological order of the first launch of these internet-based facilities?
(A) YouTube, Gmail, Instagram, Wikipedia
(B) Wikipedia, YouTube, Gmail, Instagram
(C) Gmail, Wikipedia, YouTube, Instagram
(D) Wikipedia, Gmail, YouTube, Instagram
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Wikipedia, Gmail, YouTube, Instagram
Explanation: By launch year: Wikipedia (2001), Gmail (2004), YouTube (2005), Instagram (2010). So the order is Wikipedia → Gmail → YouTube → Instagram. Hence (D).
Q39. Which of the following has not been appointed as a national coordinator for SWAYAM to ensure the quality of course content?
(A) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
(B) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
(C) Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB)
(D) Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
Explanation: The national coordinators for SWAYAM include AICTE, NPTEL, UGC, CEC, NCERT, NIOS, IGNOU and IIMB. The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is not among the appointed national coordinators. Hence (A).
Q40. In the context of the ‘Web 2.0’ digital environment, what does the abbreviation UGC stand for?
(A) University Grants Commission
(B) User Generated Content
(C) Unique Graphic Coding
(D) Universal Graphic Chip-set
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) User Generated Content
Explanation: In the Web 2.0 context, UGC means User Generated Content — material created and shared by users themselves. Hence (B).
Q41. When were the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by the United Nations?
(A) 1990
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2010
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 2000
Explanation: The Millennium Development Goals were adopted by the UN in the year 2000 (at the Millennium Summit). Hence (C).
Q42. What is the target year for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals?
(A) 2020
(B) 2025
(C) 2030
(D) 2040
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) 2030
Explanation: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are to be achieved by the target year 2030. Hence (C).
Q43. Which of the following is an effect of photochemical smog?
(A) Headaches, eyes, nose and throat irritation
(B) Gastrointestinal disorders
(C) Renal disorders
(D) Bone disorders
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Headaches, eyes, nose and throat irritation
Explanation: Photochemical smog (rich in ozone and oxidants) causes irritation of the eyes, nose and throat and headaches, along with respiratory discomfort. Hence (A).
Q44. What is the term for the process of inoculating microbes into soil?
(A) Bioventing
(B) Biostimulation
(C) Bioaugmentation
(D) Biosparging
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Bioaugmentation
Explanation: Bioaugmentation is the introduction (inoculation) of microbes into soil or water to enhance the breakdown of contaminants. Hence (C).
Q45. Which component of a solar panel is responsible for directly generating electric current when exposed to sunlight?
(A) Inverter
(B) Semiconductor material
(C) Reflectors
(D) Batteries
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Semiconductor material
Explanation: The semiconductor material (e.g. silicon in the photovoltaic cells) directly generates electric current via the photovoltaic effect when exposed to sunlight. The inverter and batteries handle conversion and storage. Hence (B).
Q46. Environmental Education is not just awareness and knowledge, but it is also development of …………… .
(A) Deeper knowledge
(B) Theoretic knowledge
(C) Proper attitude
(D) Proper concepts
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Proper attitude
Explanation: Environmental education aims not only at awareness and knowledge but also at developing the right attitudes and values towards the environment, leading to responsible action. Hence (C).
Q47. The Indian education system is generally divided into the following periods:
(A) Vedic period, Buddhist period, Muslim period, British period, Post-Independence period
(B) Hindu period, Buddhist period, Jain period, Muslim period, British period
(C) Vedic period, Ramayan period, Mahabharat period, Jain period, British period
(D) Upanishadic period, Puranas period, Buddhist period, Muslim period, Modern period
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Vedic period, Buddhist period, Muslim period, British period, Post-Independence period
Explanation: The Indian education system is conventionally divided into the Vedic, Buddhist, Muslim, British and Post-Independence periods. Hence (A).
Q48. In the correspondence education system, the following things are included:
(A) Only guiding instructions
(B) Only solved answers through letters
(C) Guiding instructions and solved answers
(D) Guiding instructions, solved answers and occasional lectures
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Guiding instructions, solved answers and occasional lectures
Explanation: Correspondence education provides guiding instructions and solved answers through mailed material, supplemented by occasional contact lectures/sessions. Hence (D).
Q49. The First Open University was started in 1969 at …………… .
(A) Chicago in America
(B) Milton Keynes in England
(C) Paris in France
(D) Delhi in India
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Milton Keynes in England
Explanation: The world’s first Open University was established in 1969 at Milton Keynes, England. Hence (B).
Q50. According to the Muslim system of education, ‘Madarsa’ is supposed to be the centre of …………… .
(A) Primary Education
(B) Secondary Education
(C) Higher Education
(D) Technical Education
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Higher Education
Explanation: In the Muslim system of education, the madarsa was the centre of higher education, while the maqtab provided elementary education. Hence (C).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET April 2024 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.
