MAH SET June 2025 Paper 1 Questions & Answers
Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in June 2025. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. All 50 questions are compulsory. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.
Solved Questions & Answers
Q1. If taught on the reflective level of teaching, the students get tremendous power for acquisition of …………… : (i) Factual information (ii) Generalized insight (iii) Problem solving abilities
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: The reflective level is the highest level of teaching and subsumes the levels below it. So it develops factual information (memory level), generalized insight (understanding level) and problem-solving abilities (reflective level) — all three. Hence (D).
Q2. A session is planned to explore a number of ideas related to the solution of a problem without passing any judgement. For this, the teacher will use …………… strategy.
(A) Dramatization and role playing
(B) Project
(C) Supervised study
(D) Brainstorming
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Brainstorming
Explanation: Brainstorming generates many ideas freely, deferring judgement, which is exactly the described session. Hence (D).
Q3. (i) ‘SWAYAMPRABHA’ is a name given to a group of DTH channels devoted to telecasting educational content. (ii) ‘SWAYAM’ provides online MOOC courses with a provision of certificate/credit-transfer. Related to these statements:
(A) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong
(B) (i) is wrong but (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Explanation: SWAYAM PRABHA is indeed a group of DTH educational channels, and SWAYAM offers online MOOCs with certificate and credit-transfer provisions. Both statements are correct. Hence (C).
Q4. Summative evaluation is …………… in nature.
(A) Judgemental
(B) Developmental
(C) Diagnostic
(D) Placemental
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Judgemental
Explanation: Summative evaluation comes at the end of instruction to judge the final level of achievement, so it is judgemental in nature. (Formative evaluation is developmental.) Hence (A).
Q5. CAI stands for …………… .
(A) Computer Assisted Imitation
(B) Computer Arranged Installation
(C) Computer Arranged Induction
(D) Computer Assisted Instruction
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Computer Assisted Instruction
Explanation: CAI stands for Computer Assisted Instruction — using computers to deliver and support teaching. Hence (D).
Q6. …………… is not a type of research.
(A) Descriptive research
(B) Exploratory research
(C) Causal research
(D) Subjective research
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Subjective research
Explanation: Descriptive, exploratory and causal are recognised types of research. ‘Subjective research’ is not a standard research type. Hence (D).
Q7. …………… is the role of simulation software.
(A) Collecting primary data
(B) Creating virtual models for experimentation
(C) Conducting surveys
(D) Writing research papers
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Creating virtual models for experimentation
Explanation: Simulation software creates virtual models that let researchers experiment with and study systems that would be costly or impractical to test in reality. Hence (B).
Q8. …………… is a common goal of both positivistic and post-positivistic approaches to research.
(A) To eliminate subjectivity entirely from the research process
(B) To discover new knowledge and contribute to the understanding of phenomena
(C) To prioritize personal opinions and beliefs over empirical evidence
(D) To avoid using any form of data in the research process
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) To discover new knowledge and contribute to the understanding of phenomena
Explanation: Both positivism and post-positivism share the fundamental aim of discovering new knowledge and advancing understanding of phenomena, even though they differ on objectivity and method. Hence (B).
Q9. The term ‘DOI’ stands for …………… in academic writing and referencing.
(A) Document of interest
(B) Directory of information
(C) Digital object identifier
(D) Database of integration
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Digital object identifier
Explanation: DOI stands for Digital Object Identifier — a unique, persistent code that identifies a digital document such as a journal article. Hence (C).
Q10. …………… term refers to the ethical obligation of a researcher to give credit to the ideas, words or work of others.
(A) Acknowledgement
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Authorship
(D) Attribution
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Attribution
Explanation: Attribution is the practice of crediting the source of ideas, words or work used, fulfilling the researcher’s ethical obligation. Hence (D).
Q11. The object of an ergonomist is …………… .
(A) To make employees more contented
(B) To have a knowledge of a number of sciences and techniques
(C) To find people with all their quirks and idiosyncracies
(D) To enable a person of ordinary abilities to carry out his tasks safely and efficiently
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) To enable a person of ordinary abilities to carry out his tasks safely and efficiently
Explanation: The passage states that the ergonomist’s object is to enable a person of ordinary abilities to carry out tasks safely and efficiently with a minimum of instruction. Hence (D).
Q12. What is the more common or traditional policy?
(A) Making valuable contribution to industry
(B) Fitting the man to the machine
(C) Designing and redesigning machines and equipments
(D) Confusing busy businessmen
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Fitting the man to the machine
Explanation: The passage contrasts ergonomics with the traditional policy of ‘fitting the man to the machine’ by selecting and training the best person for each job. Hence (B).
Q13. What do you understand by ‘boffins’?
(A) Employees
(B) Businessmen
(C) Engineers or scientists
(D) Labourers
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Engineers or scientists
Explanation: ‘Boffins’ is a colloquial term for scientists or technical experts (engineers/scientists). Hence (C).
Q14. Ergonomics is the study of …………… .
(A) Quirks and idiosyncracies of the workers
(B) Capabilities and limitations of human beings
(C) Relationship between man and his working environment
(D) Research being carried out in the field of industry
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Relationship between man and his working environment
Explanation: The passage defines ergonomics broadly as the study of the relationship between man and his working environment. Hence (C).
Q15. An ergonomist himself needs a knowledge of …………… .
(A) A number of sciences and techniques
(B) Only one discipline
(C) His own self
(D) His colleagues
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) A number of sciences and techniques
Explanation: The passage states that the ergonomist needs a knowledge of a number of sciences and techniques to carry out his work. Hence (A).
Q16. If communication is defined as ‘effective or successful transmission of a message from the sender to the other person’, then which becomes the fundamental criterion to decide the extent of effectiveness?
(A) Noise level of the medium used for communication
(B) Generic form of the content of the communication
(C) Simplicity of the message of the communication
(D) Meaning and intent as put in by the sender in communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Meaning and intent as put in by the sender in communication
Explanation: Effectiveness is judged by whether the receiver grasps the meaning and intent the sender put into the message — i.e. whether the intended meaning was successfully conveyed. Hence (D).
Q17. Instance 1: A teacher lectures to 10 students. Instance 2: A teacher lectures to 100 students. With all intervening variables the same, which is the most likely possibility from the communication perspective?
(A) Interactivity will be higher in Instance 2 than Instance 1
(B) Interactivity will be higher in Instance 1 than Instance 2
(C) Interactivity will be the same in both
(D) Interactivity remains unaffected
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Interactivity will be higher in Instance 1 than Instance 2
Explanation: A smaller group allows more direct, two-way exchange between teacher and students, so interactivity is higher with 10 students than with 100. Hence (B).
Q18. Which criterion produces ‘Intra’, ‘Inter’, ‘Group’ and ‘Mass’ as four types of communication?
(A) Effectiveness of communication
(B) Medium used in communication
(C) Number of participants in communication
(D) Nature of message of communication
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Number of participants in communication
Explanation: These four types scale by how many people are involved — one (intra), two (inter), a small group, and a large audience (mass). The criterion is the number of participants. Hence (C).
Q19. In the context of Indian television, which of the following did not take place in the decade of 1980?
(A) Separation of Doordarshan (DD) from Aakashwani (AIR)
(B) Television becomes colour
(C) Rapid spread of television network across India
(D) Launch of Ramayan, Mahabharat serials
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Separation of Doordarshan (DD) from Aakashwani (AIR)
Explanation: During the 1980s, Indian TV turned colour (1982), the network expanded rapidly, and the Ramayan/Mahabharat serials aired (late 1980s). The formal separation of Doordarshan from All India Radio under Prasar Bharati came later (1990s), so it did not take place in the 1980s. Hence (A).
Q20. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to an online meeting?
(A) It does not incorporate non-verbal clues
(B) It does not recognize space barriers
(C) It can become multi-media communication
(D) It can incorporate various means of interactivity
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) It does not incorporate non-verbal clues
Explanation: Online meetings (with video) do convey non-verbal cues such as facial expressions and gestures, so saying they do not incorporate non-verbal clues (A) is incorrect. The other statements are true. Hence (A).
Q21. In a company, the shares of Shanta, Kanta and Bhranta are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 1. The profit in a certain year is Rs. 3,33,333. How much is Kanta’s profit?
(A) 1,80,180
(B) 1,85,185
(C) 1,05,105
(D) 1,11,111
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 1,85,185
Explanation: Total ratio parts = 3 + 5 + 1 = 9. Kanta’s share = 5/9 × 3,33,333 = Rs. 1,85,185. Hence (B).
Q22. A watch shows Monday 1 pm. What will it indicate after completing 101 hours?
(A) Monday, 1 am
(B) Tuesday, 4 am
(C) Thursday, 5 pm
(D) Friday, 6 pm
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Friday, 6 pm
Explanation: 101 hours = 4 days and 5 hours (since 4 × 24 = 96, remainder 5). From Monday 1 pm, 4 days later is Friday 1 pm, plus 5 hours is Friday 6 pm. Hence (D).
Q23. Suppose 5 numbers are selected at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}. Which statement is necessarily true about the selected numbers?
(A) At least two of them are even numbers
(B) There are at most two pairs having sum of each pair 9
(C) There is at least one pair having sum 9
(D) At most three of them are even numbers
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) There is at least one pair having sum 9
Explanation: The pairs summing to 9 are {1,8}, {2,7}, {3,6}, {4,5} — 4 disjoint pairs covering all 8 numbers. Choosing any 5 numbers (by the pigeonhole principle over 4 pairs) forces two of them to come from the same pair, giving at least one pair with sum 9. Hence (C).
Q24. A bank offers the following choices for interest on fixed deposits. Which is most beneficial to the customer?
(A) 10% per annum compounded yearly
(B) 9% per annum compounded six monthly
(C) 8% per annum compounded quarterly
(D) 7% per annum compounded monthly
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 10% per annum compounded yearly
Explanation: Effective annual yields: A = 10%; B = (1.045)² − 1 ≈ 9.20%; C = (1.02)⁴ − 1 ≈ 8.24%; D = (1 + 0.07/12)¹² − 1 ≈ 7.23%. The highest is A at 10%. Hence (A).
Q25. In a right-angled triangle with hypotenuse H cm, base B cm and height T cm, which of the following ratios is the largest?
(A) H/T
(B) B/T
(C) T/H
(D) B/H
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) H/T
Explanation: The hypotenuse H is the longest side, so it exceeds both B and T. Thus H/T > 1, while T/H and B/H are less than 1, and B/T can be more or less than 1 but is always smaller than H/T (since H > B). So H/T is the largest ratio. Hence (A).
Q26. Statement I: All tax payers are honest. Statement II: All students are honest. Conclusion 1: Some tax payers are not honest. Conclusion 2: Some students are tax payers. Which is/are valid?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Conclusion 1 directly contradicts Statement I (all tax payers ARE honest), so it cannot follow. Both tax payers and students are subsets of ‘honest’, but that does not force any overlap between them, so Conclusion 2 does not follow either. Neither follows. Hence (D).
Q27. In a ranking, Vishal was above Vijay but below Shyam. Mohan was above Shyam but below Rohan. Vijay was between Vishal and Ashok. Who is third from the top?
(A) Vishal
(B) Mohan
(C) Vijay
(D) Shyam
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Shyam
Explanation: Combining: Rohan > Mohan > Shyam > Vishal > Vijay > Ashok. The third from the top is Shyam. Hence (D).
Q28. In a code language, if ‘MUMBAI’ is coded as LVLCZJ, then how will ‘SANGLI’ be coded?
(A) RZOFMJ
(B) TZMHKJ
(C) RBMHKJ
(D) RZMFKJ
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) RBMHKJ
Explanation: The letters alternate −1 and +1: M−1=L, U+1=V, M−1=L, B+1=C, A−1=Z, I+1=J, giving LVLCZJ. Applying the same pattern to SANGLI: S−1=R, A+1=B, N−1=M, G+1=H, L−1=K, I+1=J, giving RBMHKJ. Hence (C).
Q29. Ragini, facing East, walks 10 m, turns left and walks 12 m, then turns right through 45° and walks 15 m. How far is she from the starting point and which direction is she facing now?
(A) 37 meter, North-East
(B) 27 meter, North
(C) 37 meter, East
(D) 22 meter, South-East
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) 37 meter, North-East
Explanation: Facing East she walks 10 m, turns left (now facing North) and walks 12 m, then turns right 45° (now facing North-East) and walks 15 m. She ends up moving in the North-East direction; the total path is 10 + 12 + 15 = 37 m. So she is facing North-East. Hence (A). (The figure intends the total distance travelled, 37 m, with final direction North-East.)
Q30. Which of the following will complete the numerical series? 11, 14, 25, __, 133
(A) 75
(B) 52
(C) 39
(D) 123
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 52
Explanation: The differences grow by roughly a factor of three each time: 14−11 = 3, 25−14 = 11, 52−25 = 27, 133−52 = 81 (3, 11, 27, 81). The missing term that fits this growing pattern is 52. Hence (B).
Q31. How many villages were visited by both salesmen?
(A) 26
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 8
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 8
Explanation: Villages visited by at least one = 20 − 2 = 18. By inclusion–exclusion, both = (A + B) − (at least one) = (14 + 12) − 18 = 26 − 18 = 8. Hence (D).
Q32. How many villages were visited by at least one salesman?
(A) 26
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 8
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) 18
Explanation: Since 2 of the 20 villages were visited by neither salesman, those visited by at least one = 20 − 2 = 18. Hence (B).
Q33. Which employee has the maximum working days during 2018–2022?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) E
Explanation: Five-year totals: A 1500, B 1510, C 1555, D 1555, E 1605. The maximum is E with 1605. Hence (D).
Q34. Which employees have an equal number of total working days during 2018–2022?
(A) A and B
(B) C and D
(C) A, B and C
(D) B and D
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) C and D
Explanation: C and D both total 1555 working days over the five years, which is equal. Hence (B).
Q35. In which years is the difference between Birth rate and Death rate the same?
(A) 2011, 2021
(B) 2001, 2011
(C) 1971, 1981
(D) 1961, 1971
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) 1961, 1971
Explanation: Birth − Death: 1961 = 90 − 20 = 70 and 1971 = 88 − 18 = 70 — both equal 70. So the difference is the same in 1961 and 1971. Hence (D).
Q36. Identify the incorrect pair of file format and the corresponding file form:
(A) JPEG – Image file
(B) PPTX – Presentation file
(C) FLV – Video file
(D) WPT – Audio file
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) WPT – Audio file
Explanation: JPEG is an image format, PPTX a presentation, and FLV a video format — all correct. WPT is a WordPerfect template, not an audio file, so (D) is the incorrect pair. Hence (D).
Q37. In the context of information technology, what is cloud computing?
(A) It is a computing power measurement unit
(B) It is high end computing power applied for weather forecasting
(C) It is internet based computing which provides shared computer processing and data to digital devices on demand
(D) It is an international standard protocol of video file transfers on World Wide Web
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) It is internet based computing which provides shared computer processing and data to digital devices on demand
Explanation: Cloud computing delivers shared computing resources, processing and data storage over the internet, on demand, to devices. Hence (C).
Q38. What is the name of the international encoding standard for use with different languages and scripts, in which each letter, digit or symbol is assigned a unique numeric value across platforms, devices and languages?
(A) Multicode
(B) Unicode
(C) Hypercode
(D) Metacode
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Unicode
Explanation: Unicode is the international character-encoding standard that assigns a unique numeric value to every letter, digit and symbol across scripts, platforms and languages. Hence (B).
Q39. Which of the following options shows the correct chronological order of communication technologies?
(A) Telegraph, Movie Camera, Television, Radio
(B) Telegraph, Movie Camera, Radio, Television
(C) Movie Camera, Telegraph, Television, Radio
(D) Movie Camera, Radio, Telegraph, Television
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Telegraph, Movie Camera, Radio, Television
Explanation: By invention: telegraph (1830s–40s), movie camera (1890s), radio (around 1900), television (1920s). So the order is Telegraph → Movie Camera → Radio → Television. Hence (B).
Q40. Which of the following is not a typical feature of the Web 2.0 environment?
(A) Users remain as simply passive consumers of content
(B) Websites work with other digital systems, products and devices
(C) Higher interactivity and collaboration amongst users
(D) User generated content proliferates
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Users remain as simply passive consumers of content
Explanation: Web 2.0 is defined by interactivity, collaboration, interoperability and user-generated content. Users being merely passive consumers describes Web 1.0, so (A) is not a feature of Web 2.0. Hence (A).
Q41. International Solar Alliance headquarters is located at:
(A) Haryana, India
(B) Karnataka, India
(C) Dubai, UAE
(D) Colombo, Sri Lanka
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Haryana, India
Explanation: The International Solar Alliance is headquartered at Gurugram, Haryana, India. Hence (A).
Q42. Which city hosted the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) where the Paris Agreement was negotiated and adopted?
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(D) Kyoto
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Paris
Explanation: COP21, at which the Paris Agreement was adopted in 2015, was hosted in Paris. Hence (C).
Q43. Which schedule of the Environment Protection Act (1986) lists industries that require mandatory environment clearance?
(A) Schedule-I
(B) Schedule-II
(C) Schedule-III
(D) Schedule-IV
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Schedule-I
Explanation: Schedule-I of the relevant environmental rules lists the industries requiring mandatory environmental clearance. Hence (A). (This is a statute-specific recall item; verify against the exact rules.)
Q44. How does nutrient pollution affect the marine ecosystem?
(A) Enhances biodiversity
(B) Promotes coral reef growth
(C) Triggers harmful algal blooms
(D) Improves water quality
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Triggers harmful algal blooms
Explanation: Excess nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorus) cause eutrophication, triggering harmful algal blooms that deplete oxygen and damage marine life. Hence (C).
Q45. Which of the following is the effect of air pollution on leaves that causes the killing or collapse of tissues?
(A) Necrosis
(B) Chlorosis
(C) Abscission
(D) Epinasty
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) Necrosis
Explanation: Necrosis is the death or collapse of plant tissue. (Chlorosis is loss of chlorophyll/yellowing, abscission is shedding of leaves, and epinasty is downward leaf curling.) Hence (A).
Q46. During the British period in India, Lord Curzon organized …………… for the development of Indian education.
(A) Bombay Educational Committee
(B) Calcutta Educational Meeting
(C) Simla Educational Conference
(D) Delhi Educational Conference
► Right Answer
Answer: (C) Simla Educational Conference
Explanation: Lord Curzon convened the Simla Educational Conference (1901) to review and reform Indian education. Hence (C).
Q47. The Sadler Commission was set up to inquire into …………… .
(A) The conditions and problems of the University of Calcutta
(B) Problems of all universities in India
(C) Issues in evaluation of higher education
(D) Issues in curriculum of higher education
► Right Answer
Answer: (A) The conditions and problems of the University of Calcutta
Explanation: The Sadler Commission (Calcutta University Commission, 1917–19) was appointed to study the condition and problems of the University of Calcutta, though its findings influenced higher education broadly. Hence (A).
Q48. In the Buddhist educational tradition, in order to become a ‘Guru’, the person had to undergo the following series:
(A) Shishya, Pravin, Pandit
(B) Brahmachari, Pandit, Upadhyaya
(C) Shraman, Shravak, Pandit
(D) Shraman, Bhikkhu, Upadhyaya
► Right Answer
Answer: (D) Shraman, Bhikkhu, Upadhyaya
Explanation: In the Buddhist tradition, the progression to becoming a teacher (Guru/Upadhyaya) ran from Shraman to Bhikkhu to Upadhyaya. Hence (D).
Q49. In the Vedic educational tradition, the word ‘Upanishad’ literally means …………… .
(A) Learning by heart all mantras
(B) Sitting near Guru to learn
(C) Sub-parts of Vedas
(D) Stories of masters and disciples
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Sitting near Guru to learn
Explanation: ‘Upanishad’ literally means ‘sitting down near’ — i.e. sitting close to the Guru to receive knowledge. Hence (B).
Q50. According to the Jainism education tradition, the first method of learning is …………… .
(A) Prarthana or prayer
(B) Deshana Shravan or careful listening of advice
(C) Amnaya or concentrated reading
(D) Anutprekshya or deep thinking
► Right Answer
Answer: (B) Deshana Shravan or careful listening of advice
Explanation: In the Jain tradition the first method of learning is Deshana Shravan — careful listening to the advice/teachings, which precedes reading and reflection. Hence (B).
That completes all 50 questions of the MAH SET June 2025 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.