Maharashtra State Eligibility Test – Paper I – May 2016

by July 5, 2026
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MAH SET May 2016 Paper 1 Questions & Answers

Welcome to the complete solved answer key for the MAH SET (Maharashtra State Eligibility Test) Paper 1 held in May 2016. This is the General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude. The paper has 60 questions; candidates answer any 50. Every English-language question below is reproduced as it appeared in the paper, followed by all four options. Try each question first, then click Right Answer to see the correct option and a clear explanation of why it is right. Use this page to revise for your Maharashtra SET exam.

Solved Questions & Answers

Q1. Application of course-content in day-to-day life is mainly achieved through:

(A) Demonstration method

(B) Project method

(C) Field visit

(D) Inquiry method

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Project method

Explanation: The project method engages students in applying what they have learnt to real, practical tasks, connecting course content to day-to-day life. Demonstration (A) shows a process, field visits (C) give exposure, and inquiry (D) promotes investigation, but the project method most directly achieves application in everyday life. Hence (B).


Q2. In order to monitor students’ progress and to modify teaching accordingly, the best method of evaluation is:

(A) formative evaluation

(B) summative evaluation

(C) qualitative evaluation

(D) objective-based evaluation

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) formative evaluation

Explanation: Formative evaluation takes place during the teaching-learning process, giving ongoing feedback that lets the teacher monitor progress and adjust instruction. Summative evaluation (B) comes at the end and cannot guide mid-course changes. Hence (A).


Q3. The question, “How would you prove that the earth is round or not round?” is based on the …… objective.

(A) Comprehension

(B) Evaluation

(C) Application

(D) Synthesis

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Evaluation

Explanation: Asking a student to ‘prove’ or judge whether a claim is true requires weighing evidence and making a reasoned judgement, which is the evaluation level of Bloom’s taxonomy. Hence (B).


Q4. Which of the following is not essential for good teaching?

(A) Human-relations skills

(B) Communication skills

(C) Attractive personality

(D) Knowledge of appropriate teaching methods

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Attractive personality

Explanation: Good teaching depends on relating well to students (A), communicating clearly (B) and knowing suitable methods (D). An attractive personality (C) may help rapport but is not essential to effective teaching. Hence (C).


Q5. The most important purpose of ‘guidance’ of students is to:

(A) help them to understand their own shortcomings

(B) help them to change their faulty behaviour

(C) make them capable of helping themselves

(D) direct them about the right path

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) make them capable of helping themselves

Explanation: The ultimate aim of guidance is to develop self-reliance, so that students can understand and solve their own problems independently. Helping them see shortcomings (A), change behaviour (B) or giving direction (D) are steps toward this larger goal of self-help. Hence (C).


Q6. The best method of increasing the motivation to learn is:

(A) punishing inattention during learning

(B) asking difficult questions while teaching

(C) explaining, in the beginning, the purpose of teaching a unit

(D) using a variety of audio-visual aids

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) explaining, in the beginning, the purpose of teaching a unit

Explanation: When learners understand why a topic matters and what they will gain, their intrinsic motivation to learn rises. Punishment (A) discourages, difficult questions (B) can demotivate, and aids (D) help attention but not purpose. Explaining the purpose (C) best builds motivation. Hence (C).


Q7. A research problem is primarily chosen depending upon:

(A) its relevance

(B) available funds

(C) interest of the researcher

(D) availability of literature

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) interest of the researcher

Explanation: A research problem is primarily chosen based on the researcher’s genuine interest, which sustains the motivation and persistence needed to carry the study through. Relevance, funds and literature are important considerations but secondary to the driving interest. Hence (C).


Q8. Which of the following is a primary source of information?

(A) A research review

(B) A recently written text-book

(C) A research article published in a standard journal

(D) A multi-author treatise published in the year 2015

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) A research article published in a standard journal

Explanation: A primary source presents original, first-hand research directly from those who conducted it, such as a research article in a standard journal. Reviews (A), textbooks (B) and treatises (D) discuss or compile others’ work and are secondary sources. Hence (C).


Q9. A research report showed that the population of a country increased from 20 million in 1941 A.D. to 60 million in 2000 A.D. The study can best be described as:

(A) Factorial

(B) Social

(C) Longitudinal

(D) Cross-sectional

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Longitudinal

Explanation: Studying change in the same variable over a long period (here population across decades) is a longitudinal study. A cross-sectional study (D) examines data at a single point in time. Hence (C).


Q10. A hypothesis is not always necessary in …… studies.

(A) normative

(B) correlational

(C) experimental

(D) historical

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) normative

Explanation: Normative (descriptive/survey) studies aim to describe existing conditions or ‘what is’, and can proceed without a formal hypothesis. Experimental and correlational studies typically require hypotheses to test relationships. Hence (A).


Q11. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Judgement sampling

(B) Stratified sampling

(C) Quota sampling

(D) Convenience sampling

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Stratified sampling

Explanation: Stratified sampling divides the population into strata and selects randomly within each, so every unit has a known, non-zero probability of selection — a probability method. Judgement (A), quota (C) and convenience (D) sampling are non-probability methods. Hence (B).


Q12. Field study is concerned with:

(A) real life situations

(B) doing laboratory studies in the outdoors

(C) experimental approach

(D) collecting selective data

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) real life situations

Explanation: A field study investigates phenomena in their natural, real-life settings rather than under controlled laboratory conditions. Hence (A).


Q13. A truly non-violent person would not even:

(A) take revenge upon his enemy

(B) have ill will for his enemy

(C) cause his enemy some injury

(D) destroy his enemy

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) have ill will for his enemy

Explanation: The passage says non-violence is complete absence of ill-will against all that lives; a truly non-violent person wishes his wrong-doer well and harbours no ill will. So he would not even have ill will for his enemy (B). Hence (B).


Q14. The idea of non-violence concerns:

(A) progressive societies

(B) insects and animals

(C) God

(D) all forms of life

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) all forms of life

Explanation: The passage states that non-violence embraces even sub-human life, not excluding noxious insects or beasts — it is goodwill towards all life. So it concerns all forms of life (D). Hence (D).


Q15. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Complete non-violence is the absence of will power

(B) Non-violence is pure love for all whom we know

(C) All living beings have their proper place in the universe

(D) A non-violent person is always passive

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) All living beings have their proper place in the universe

Explanation: The passage says that if we knew the mind of the Creator we should find every creature’s proper place in His creation — i.e. all living beings have their proper place (C). Non-violence is love for all life (not only those we know), and it is an active, not passive, state, so B and D are wrong. Hence (C).


Q16. At present, man is partly …… in his behaviour and attitude.

(A) beastly

(B) divine

(C) cowardly

(D) ignorant

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) beastly

Explanation: The passage states that in our present state we are partly men and partly beasts, delivering blow for blow. So man is partly beastly in behaviour (A). Hence (A).


Q17. Non-violence is pure:

(A) Perfection

(B) Love

(C) Generosity

(D) Consciousness

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Love

Explanation: The passage concludes that non-violence in its active form is goodwill towards all life — ‘It is pure Love.’ Hence (B).


Q18. The most appropriate title for the passage is:

(A) The advantages of non-violence

(B) It is really possible to be non-violent

(C) Non-violence as a political ideology

(D) The spirit of non-violence

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) The spirit of non-violence

Explanation: The passage explores the inner nature and meaning of non-violence — as innocence, goodwill and love — rather than its advantages or politics. The unifying theme is the spirit of non-violence (D). Hence (D).


Q19. In the context of face to face interpersonal communication which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(A) Verbal signs or signals are more in terms of quantum and variety

(B) Non-verbal signs or signals are difficult to control

(C) In case of confusion over meaning, verbal signs are trusted less

(D) Non-verbal signs or signals are mostly involuntary

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Verbal signs or signals are more in terms of quantum and variety

Explanation: In face-to-face communication, non-verbal signals (expressions, tone, posture, gestures) actually outnumber and out-vary verbal ones, so saying verbal signals are greater in quantum and variety (A) is incorrect. The others are true: non-verbal cues are hard to control and largely involuntary, and are trusted more when meaning is unclear. Hence (A).


Q20. In which of the following types of communication the potential for getting quick, significant and reliable feedback is maximum?

(A) Mass Communication

(B) Group Communication

(C) Interpersonal Communication

(D) Inter-group Communication

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Interpersonal Communication

Explanation: Interpersonal (one-to-one, face-to-face) communication allows immediate, direct, two-way feedback, so the potential for quick and reliable feedback is greatest. Mass and group communication have slower, weaker feedback. Hence (C).


Q21. Identify the incorrect pair of media and its performance indicator from the following:

(A) Newspapers — Circulation

(B) Cinema — Box Office

(C) Television — TVT

(D) Radio — ROD

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Radio — ROD

Explanation: Newspaper reach is measured by circulation, cinema by box office, and television by TVT/TRP ratings. Radio performance is measured by listenership ratings, not ‘ROD’, which is not a real indicator. So Radio — ROD is the incorrect pair. Hence (D).


Q22. In the context of FM Radio the abbreviation FM stands for:

(A) Frequency Manipulation

(B) Frequency Modulation

(C) Fidelity Modifier

(D) Fidelity Modulation

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Frequency Modulation

Explanation: FM stands for Frequency Modulation, the broadcasting technique in which the carrier wave’s frequency is varied to encode the signal. Hence (B).


Q23. The sitting arrangement in a typical classroom in which students face the teacher, encourages a communication which:

(A) facilitates easy interaction among students

(B) give more communicative power to teacher for control

(C) give equal communicative power to teacher and students

(D) facilitates a multidirectional conversation

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) give more communicative power to teacher for control

Explanation: When all students face the teacher, communication flows mainly from teacher to students, concentrating communicative power with the teacher and giving control. It limits student-to-student interaction and multidirectional exchange. Hence (B).


Q24. For a teacher what is the easiest and quickest location of getting the students’ feedback in a classroom situation?

(A) Body language of students

(B) Questions asked by students

(C) The quality of class notes taken by them

(D) Assignment submitted by them on the topic

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Body language of students

Explanation: A teacher can read students’ body language — expressions, posture, attentiveness — instantly and continuously during class, making it the quickest, easiest source of feedback. Questions, notes and assignments come later. Hence (A).


Q25. For the sequence 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, …, n/(n+1), …, which of the following is not true?

(A) The sequence is strictly increasing

(B) The sequence is bounded above by 0.99

(C) The sequence is bounded below and bounded above

(D) The sequence contains no number between 3/4 and 4/5

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) The sequence is bounded above by 0.99

Explanation: The terms n/(n+1) increase toward 1, so for large n they exceed 0.99 (e.g. 100/101 ≈ 0.990). Hence the sequence is NOT bounded above by 0.99, making (B) the untrue statement. It is strictly increasing, bounded between 1/2 and 1, and jumps from 3/4 (=0.75) directly to 4/5 (=0.8) with nothing between consecutive terms there. Hence (B).


Q26. Which of the following is not a linguistic skill?

(A) Speaking

(B) Reading

(C) Thinking

(D) Writing

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Thinking

Explanation: The four language (linguistic) skills are listening, speaking, reading and writing. Thinking is a cognitive process, not one of the linguistic skills. Hence (C).


Q27. Suppose that X is a set of some real numbers. From which of the following statements does not deduce the other statements?

(A) Between any two numbers in X, there is at least one number in X

(B) Between any two numbers in X, there are at least two numbers in X

(C) Between any two numbers in X, there are infinitely many numbers in X

(D) If X contains at least two numbers then X contains infinitely many numbers

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Between any two numbers in X, there is at least one number in X

Explanation: Statement (A) — that between any two members there is at least one member — is the weakest ‘density’ condition, yet it actually implies the others: if you can always find one number between two, you can repeat the process to find two, then infinitely many. The question asks which statement, taken alone, does not need to be deduced from the stronger ones; (A) is the base condition from which the rest follow, so it is the odd one that the others do not yield. Hence (A). (This is a subtle logic item; verify against the official key.)


Q28. There are 7 persons in a party. The number of hands shaken all together in the party counted with multiplicity, cannot be:

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 10

(D) 2

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 5

Explanation: Every handshake involves two hands, so counting hands ‘with multiplicity’ always gives an even total. An odd value such as 5 is therefore impossible. Hence (A).


Q29. If two distinct circles in a plane are intersecting each other, then they intersect in:

(A) exactly one point

(B) infinitely many points

(C) at the most two points

(D) exactly two points

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) at the most two points

Explanation: Two distinct circles can meet in at most two points — they may touch at one point (tangent) or cross at two, but never more. ‘At the most two points’ (C) is the precise general statement. Hence (C).


Q30. If the word PRINCE is coded as 151781324 in a code language, then what should be the code for the word KING in the same language?

(A) 108136

(B) 119135

(C) 109145

(D) 118146

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 108136

Explanation: Each letter is coded by its alphabet position with A = 0 (so B = 1, C = 2, …): P=15, R=17, I=8, N=13, C=2, E=4, giving 151781324. Applying the same to KING: K=10, I=8, N=13, G=6, giving 108136. Hence (A).


Q31. Based on the statements, which conclusion follows? Statement I: All the bowlers of my team are wicket takers. Statement II: Varun is not a wicket taking bowler. Conclusion 1: Varun is a spin bowler. Conclusion 2: Varun is not a bowler of my team.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation: Since all bowlers of my team are wicket takers, and Varun is not a wicket-taking bowler, Varun cannot be a bowler of my team — conclusion 2 follows. Nothing tells us he is a spin bowler, so conclusion 1 does not follow. Hence (B).


Q32. Based on the statements, which conclusion follows? Statement I: All apples are mangoes. Statement II: All mangoes are bananas. Conclusion 1: All apples are bananas. Conclusion 2: Some bananas are mangoes.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: All apples are mangoes and all mangoes are bananas, so all apples are bananas — conclusion 1 follows. Since all mangoes are bananas, those mangoes are bananas, so some bananas are mangoes — conclusion 2 also follows. Hence (C).


Q33. If the word FROG is coded as 719168, then what should be the code for TRIP?

(A) 21181016

(B) 21191017

(C) 2019917

(D) 2119916

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 21191017

Explanation: Each letter is coded by its alphabet position plus 1: F(6+1)=7, R(18+1)=19, O(15+1)=16, G(7+1)=8, giving 719168. Applying to TRIP: T(20+1)=21, R(18+1)=19, I(9+1)=10, P(16+1)=17, giving 21191017. Hence (B).


Q34. Which one is the odd-one out from the following?

(A) FEG

(B) TSU

(C) NML

(D) RQS

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) NML

Explanation: In FEG, TSU and RQS the letters follow the pattern (−1, +2) from the first letter: F→E→G, T→S→U, R→Q→S. In NML the pattern is (−1, −1): N→M→L, which is different. So NML is the odd one out. Hence (C).


Q35. Five players, P, Q, R, S and T are playing cards on a table facing the center. P is on the left of Q but not a neighbour of T. S is on the right of R and is not a neighbour of Q. T is on the right of Q. Who is on the right of S?

(A) R

(B) P

(C) T

(D) Q

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) P

Explanation: Placing them around the table (clockwise = to the right, facing centre): Q, T, R, S, P. This satisfies all clues — P is on Q’s left, T on Q’s right, S on R’s right, and neither P-T nor S-Q are neighbours. Going right (clockwise) from S is P. Hence (B).


Q36. Which of the alternatives will complete the following letter series? EGF, IKJ, …, QSR, UWV.

(A) MON

(B) LNM

(C) NPO

(D) MNO

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) MON

Explanation: Each group has the pattern (start)(start+2)(start+1). The starting letters jump by 4: E, I, M, Q, U. The missing group starts at M: M, O (M+2), N (M+1) — MON. Hence (A).


Q37. Total number of students studying at post-graduate level in institutes N and O is:

(A) 5601

(B) 5944

(C) 6669

(D) 7004

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) 6669

Explanation: Post-graduate students in N and O = (15% + 12%) of 24,700 = 27% of 24,700 = 6,669. Hence (C).


Q38. What is the total number of graduate and post-graduate students in institute Q?

(A) 8320

(B) 7916

(C) 9116

(D) 8372

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) 8372

Explanation: Graduate in Q = 18% of 27,300 = 4,914; Post-graduate in Q = 14% of 24,700 = 3,458. Total = 4,914 + 3,458 = 8,372. Hence (D).


Q39. What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels respectively from institute R?

(A) 14 : 19

(B) 19 : 21

(C) 17 : 21

(D) 19 : 14

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) 19 : 14

Explanation: Post-graduate in R = 21% of 24,700 = 5,187; Graduate in R = 14% of 27,300 = 3,822. The ratio 5,187 : 3,822 simplifies to about 1.357, i.e. 19 : 14. Hence (D).


Q40. What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate level from institute R and the number of students studying at graduate level from institute P?

(A) 13 : 19

(B) 21 : 13

(C) 13 : 8

(D) 19 : 13

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) 19 : 13

Explanation: Post-graduate in R = 21% of 24,700 = 5,187; Graduate in P = 13% of 27,300 = 3,549. The ratio 5,187 : 3,549 simplifies to about 1.4615, i.e. 19 : 13. Hence (D).


Q41. If the total area under jowar is 1.5 million acres, what is the area under rice?

(A) 6 million acres

(B) 7.5 million acres

(C) 9 million acres

(D) 4.5 million acres

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) 6 million acres

Explanation: Jowar is 5% and rice is 20% of the total — rice occupies four times the jowar area. So rice = 4 × 1.5 = 6 million acres. Hence (A).


Q42. If the production of wheat is 6 times that of barley, what is the ratio between the yield per acre of wheat and barley?

(A) 3 : 2

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 12 : 1

(D) 2 : 3

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 3 : 1

Explanation: Wheat area is 20% and barley area is 10% (wheat area is twice barley’s). Yield per acre = production ÷ area. Wheat : barley yield per acre = (6 ÷ 20) : (1 ÷ 10) = 0.3 : 0.1 = 3 : 1. Hence (B).


Q43. Which of the following is the correct chronology of internet based facilities?

(A) Google, Hotmail, Facebook, Whatsapp

(B) Facebook, Google, Hotmail, Whatsapp

(C) Hotmail, Google, Facebook, Whatsapp

(D) Hotmail, Facebook, Google, Whatsapp

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Hotmail, Google, Facebook, Whatsapp

Explanation: By launch year: Hotmail (1996), Google (1998), Facebook (2004), WhatsApp (2009). So the order is Hotmail → Google → Facebook → WhatsApp. Hence (C).


Q44. Identify the odd element from the following on the basis of its basic function: Windows, Android, MS-Office, Linux, Unix.

(A) MS-Office

(B) Windows

(C) Linux

(D) Unix

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) MS-Office

Explanation: Windows, Android, Linux and Unix are all operating systems. MS-Office is an application software suite, not an operating system, so it is the odd one out on the basis of function. Hence (A).


Q45. What is the full form of PDF in the context of computer file system?

(A) Personalised Data Format

(B) Pixel Digital File

(C) Pictured Data Format

(D) Portable Document File

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Portable Document File

Explanation: PDF stands for Portable Document Format (Portable Document File), a format that preserves a document’s layout across devices. Among the options, (D) is the intended answer. Hence (D).


Q46. Which of the following is a ‘cloud computing’ based data storage facility?

(A) Play store

(B) G-mail storage

(C) Drop box

(D) Cloud stick

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Drop box

Explanation: Dropbox is a cloud-based file storage and synchronisation service. The Play Store is an app marketplace, and ‘Cloud stick’ is not a standard cloud service. Hence (C).


Q47. Which of the following is the correct statement in the context of web 2.0 facilities?

(A) Communication on these facilities is mostly one-way

(B) Content on these facilities is generated mostly by users

(C) These facilities are much more cheaper to establish

(D) These facilities use more advanced distribution technologies

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Content on these facilities is generated mostly by users

Explanation: Web 2.0 is defined by user-generated content and interactivity — users create and share the content (posts, videos, reviews). Communication is two-way (not one-way), so (A) is wrong; (C) and (D) are not defining features. Hence (B).


Q48. Identify the correct pair from the following:

(A) Ubuntu — Operating System

(B) Excel — Word Processing Software

(C) AVI — File Transfer Protocol

(D) HDD — Cloud Storage Facility

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Ubuntu — Operating System

Explanation: Ubuntu is indeed an operating system (a Linux distribution). Excel is a spreadsheet (not word processing), AVI is a video format (not a transfer protocol), and HDD is a hard disk drive (not cloud storage). Hence (A).


Q49. A part of the large quantity of fly ash produced in a thermal power plant is used for:

(A) Soil conditioner

(B) Making bricks

(C) Road making

(D) Burning

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Making bricks

Explanation: Fly ash from thermal power plants is widely used to manufacture fly-ash bricks, a productive reuse of the waste. Hence (B).


Q50. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on:

(A) 5th July

(B) 5th June

(C) 25th January

(D) 5th December

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) 5th June

Explanation: World Environment Day is observed every year on 5th June. Hence (B).


Q51. Which of the following Acts gives rights to citizens to file cases against violation of environmental norms?

(A) Environment (Protection) Act

(B) Air Pollution Act

(C) Water Pollution Act

(D) Forest Act

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Environment (Protection) Act

Explanation: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is the umbrella legislation empowering citizens and the government to act against violations of environmental norms. Hence (A).


Q52. Which of the following gases is largely responsible for global warming?

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Chlorine

(D) Ammonia

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the principal greenhouse gas responsible for global warming, trapping outgoing heat in the atmosphere. Hence (B).


Q53. Which one of the following is not a non-conventional energy source?

(A) Solar

(B) Tidal

(C) Geothermal

(D) Coal

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Coal

Explanation: Solar, tidal and geothermal are renewable, non-conventional energy sources. Coal is a conventional fossil fuel. Hence (D).


Q54. Which of the following is the top carnivorous animal?

(A) Bird

(B) Snake

(C) Buffalo

(D) Tiger

► Right Answer

Answer: (D) Tiger

Explanation: The tiger is an apex (top) carnivore/predator. The buffalo is a herbivore, while birds and snakes occupy lower trophic levels. Hence (D).


Q55. Which one of the following e-repository is for doctoral research of Indian Universities?

(A) Dnyanganga

(B) Shodhaganga

(C) Bookganga

(D) INFLIBNET

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) Shodhaganga

Explanation: Shodhganga is the digital repository of Indian doctoral theses and dissertations, maintained by INFLIBNET. Hence (B).


Q56. Which one of the following agency is to formulate policies of higher education?

(A) UGC

(B) MHRD

(C) NCERT

(D) NAAC

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) MHRD

Explanation: Policy for higher education in India is formulated by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD, now the Ministry of Education). The UGC coordinates and maintains standards, and NAAC accredits, but policy-making rests with the ministry. Hence (B).


Q57. Which one of the following is responsible for assessment and accreditation of higher education institutions in India?

(A) UGC

(B) NAAC

(C) NCTE

(D) AICTE

► Right Answer

Answer: (B) NAAC

Explanation: The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is responsible for assessing and accrediting higher education institutions in India. Hence (B).


Q58. As per UGC 10-point grading system for CBCS, the letter grade “A+” means:

(A) Outstanding

(B) Very Good

(C) Excellent

(D) Good

► Right Answer

Answer: (C) Excellent

Explanation: In the UGC’s 10-point CBCS grading system, ‘O’ is Outstanding and ‘A+’ denotes Excellent. Hence (C).


Q59. A unit by which the course work is measured:

(A) Credit

(B) Grade

(C) Grade Point

(D) Credit Point

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Credit

Explanation: The credit is the unit used to measure the volume of course work (based on instructional hours). Hence (A).


Q60. Which was the first open university in India?

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University

(B) Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University

(C) Indira Gandhi National Open University

(D) Netaji Subhash Open University

► Right Answer

Answer: (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University

Explanation: India’s first open university was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University, established in Andhra Pradesh in 1982 (originally Andhra Pradesh Open University). IGNOU came later, in 1985. Hence (A).


That completes all 60 questions of the MAH SET May 2016 Paper 1. Bookmark this page and share it with fellow aspirants preparing for the Maharashtra SET exam.

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